Why do organisms compete for food and water?
Answer:
Organisms compete for the resources they need to survive- air, water, food, and space. In areas where these are sufficient, organisms live in comfortable co-existence, and in areas where resources are abundant, the ecosystem boasts high species richness (diversity).
Explanation:
Which number represents runoff on the hydrologic cycle diagram?
1
2
3
4
Answer
No. 4
Explanation:
Look at the DNA strand below and its
complementary strand underneath it.
What type of mutation has occurred in
the complementary strand?
ATCGGACT
TACCTAG
A. insertion
B. deletion
C. no mutation has occurred
Answer:
B. Deletion
Explaination:
Answer:
B. deletion
Explanation:
Under normal cellular conditions, the FoF1 complex of the inner mitochondrial membrane functions to create new ATP. Under non-physiologic experimental conditions, isolated FoF1 complex can be driven in reverse as long as [ATP] is high. Which of the following would be true under such conditions?
A. The FoF1 complex would be operating as an ATPase rather than an ATP synthase.
B. The FoF1 complex would be driving net H+ movement from the matrix side to the IMS (intermembrane space) side
C. The FoF1 complex would create more ATP, per unit time, than it does under physiological conditions
D. As the experiment continues, we would expect to see higher & higher concentrations of ADP.
E. The FoF1 complex would effectively be operating as a proton pump.
Answer:
The answer is "Option A, B, and E".
Explanation:
In specific cell conditions, the F0F1 system of the inner mitochondrial membrane functions as an ATP synthase for generating new ATP ADP proteins and Pi. Even so, this has a specific biological role in non-physiological situations through functioning as an ATPase. Its ATPase acts in such circumstances and transmits large amounts of ATP to both the mitochondrial space throughout the transmembrane proton gradient.
The free radical of the transmembrane can be used by fermenting bacteria without an electron transport system. Its ATPase is being used to generate a proton gradient rather than to hydrolyze ATP. It may be used as a means of transporting flagella or nutrients into its cell.
The statements which are true about the FoF1 complex are:
The FoF1 complex would be operating as an ATPase rather than an ATP synthase.The FoF1 complex would be driving net H+ movement from the matrix side to the IMS (intermembrane space). The FoF1 complex would effectively be operating as a proton pump.So, the correct options are A, B, and E.
What do you mean by FoF1 complex?This complex is present in bacterial and mitochondrial H(+)-ATP synthases both consist of a membranous sector, Fo, which forms an H(+)-channel, and an extramembranous sector, F1, which is responsible for catalysis.
This FoF1 complex is the site of ATP synthesis along with the movement of protons (H+) from the matrix to the IMS. It is effectively operating as a proton pump because it mediates the transport of H+ ions out of the matrix.
Therefore, statements A, B, and E are correct with respect to the FoF1 complex.
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Please help meeeee omgggg!!!
Answer:
Pollination
Explanation:
Bees and other pollinators drink nectar and get pollen on their feet and little pockets. When they go drink from another plant, the pollen falls on the reproductive organ and reproduction has begun.
Hope this helped :)
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
The answer is A. because for two pants to breed it depends on the pollen.
define agriculture plz
Answer:
practice of farming, including cultivation of the soil for the growing of crops and the rearing of animals to provide food, wool, and other products.
Explanation:
Answer:
Hello There!!
Explanation:
Agriculture is the art, the science and the practice of cultivating the soil, growing crops and raising livestocks.
hope this helps,have a great day!!
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what is meant by photosynthesis?
Answer:
The process in which green plants use sunlight to synthesize nutrients from carbon dioxide and water.
Explanation:
Experts and above ONLY
To answer this u have to be expert, ace or genius level
25 PTS PLEASE HELP QUICK
(not related to the question but please add thx i want friends)
OK THX THE QUESTION IS BELOW
Answer:
Answers are in the image
if wheat is sown in the kharif season what would happen discuss
Where does wind come from? Why and how is wind stronger than other times? Or why and how is wind lighter ( not as strong) as other times.
Answer:
Wind is air in motion. It is produced by the uneven heating of the earth's surface by the sun. Since the earth's surface is made of various land and water formations, it absorbs the sun's radiation unevenly. Two factors are necessary to specify wind: speed and direction.
Strong winds are due to a strong pressure gradient force. A pressure gradient is how fast pressure changes over distance. So, when pressure changes rapidly over a small distance, the pressure gradient force is large. Strong winds almost always result from large pressure gradients.
Explanation:
PLZ HURRY I ONLY GOT ABOUT 10 MINS LEFT
Answer:
b
Explanation:
i had this same quiz when i was younger
The answer is B: tectonic movement.
The shifting of tectonic plates is what is responsible for the movement of continents over millions of years.
Which option is a renewable source of energy?
a.Petroleum
B. Wind
C. Nuclear power
D. Coal
Answer:
B. Wind
Explanation:
Because nature constantly replenishes the wind, we can continue to harness its power without worrying about running out of it.
Which of the following is a characteristic of renewable sources of energy
They are exhaustible
They cause air pollution
They will run out soon
They cause less pollution
Pls help ty
They cause less pollution. Renewable sources of energy, such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric, cause significantly less air and water pollution than non-renewable sources, such as coal and oil.
What is pollution?Pollution is the presence of toxic substances in the environment that can have a negative effect on humans, animals, and plants. It can either be the result of natural processes or due to man-made activities. Pollution can occur in the air, water, soil, and even in the food we consume. Common forms of pollution include air pollution, water pollution, plastic pollution, and noise pollution. Air pollution is the release of pollutants into the air which can cause harm to humans and the environment. Water pollution is the contamination of surface or ground water and can be caused by agricultural runoff, industrial pollution, and sewage. Plastic pollution is the accumulation of plastic particles in the environment that can damage ecosystems.
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Decomposers are very important because
A. They recycle energy
B. They recycle matter
C. They destroy what we don’t need
is there an impact on the environment if blue whales went extinct? Who or what would it impact?
Without whales, krill would probably consume a large portion of the free-floating phytoplankton on the ocean's surface, accelerating climate change noticeably.
What makes the blue whale significant in terms of the environment?
Although blue whales have a huge food need, the ocean environment benefits from them rather than being burdened by them. Their iron-rich excrement is a crucial supply of nutrients for the marine food web, boosting production in the Southern Ocean and increasing fisheries yields.
What impact does blue whale extinction have on biodiversity?
The food source for many animals in the marine ecosystem is the carcasses of whales. The disappearance of whales would deprive other marine species of nutrients, which will have an impact on all species in the ocean.
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Which aquatic biome is heavily influenced by stratification?
1. rivers and streams
2. lakes and ponds
3. the ocean
Answer:
freshwater biomes
In freshwater biomes, stratification, a major abiotic factor, is related to the energy aspects of light. Marine systems are influenced by the physical water movements, such as currents and tides, along with the thermal properties of water.
hope it helps
deoxigenated blood returns to the heart via the vena cava. where does the blood go from the vena cava
a. left ventricle
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. right atrium
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Describe how you would identify mutations that are dominant. Describe how you would identify mutations that are dominant. To identify dominant mutations, breed the mutant individual to a mutant individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F1 generation. To identify dominant mutations, breed the wild-type individual to a wild-type individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F1 generation. To identify dominant mutations, breed the mutant individual to a mutant individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F2 generation. To identify dominant mutations, breed the mutant individual to a wild-type individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F2 generation. To identify dominant mutations, breed the mutant individual to a wild-type individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F1 generation.
Answer:
To identify dominant mutations, breed the mutant individual to a wild-type individual. Dominant mutations will be visible in the F1 generation.
Explanation:
Due to technical problems, you will find the complete explanation in the attached files
What happens at the end of the lytic cycle 
Folate is a crucial vitamin for proper development of
the neural tube, which eventually becomes the brain and
spinal cord. Which of the following might explain why
neural tube defects occur more frequently than other
types of birth defects?
The neural tube, which is responsible for the development of the brain and spine, closes within the first 28 days of pregnancy.
Folate deficiency can prevent the neural tube from closing, which can result in a neural tube defect.
Which vitamin deficiency results in defects of the neural tube?Neural tube defects may be more likely in people with low vitamin B12 levels, according to the National Institutes of Health (NIH).
How does folate affect the developing uterus?The amount of folate in your blood is important to help prevent a neural tube defect, also known as a serious birth defect of the brain or spine, in a developing baby if you are pregnant or could become pregnant.
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Question 12
_______receive messages from other neurons and_____send messages to other
neurons.
O Dendrites; axons
O Axons; soma
O Soma; glial cells
Axons; dendrites
Answer:
dendrites, axons
Explanation:
Dendrites receive messages from other neurons and axons send messages to other.
A small proportion of humans have resistance to strains of HIV, the virus that causes AIDS. Their immunity is caused by a deletion in gene CCR5, a co-receptor on white blood cells needed for HIV infection. The proportion of people with resistance (genotype aa) to HIV is approximately 8%. If these alleles are in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of people are carriers for the HIV resistant allele?
Answer:
The correct answer is "40.6%". A further explanation is provided below.
Explanation:
The given values are:
The proportion of people with resistance is,
aa = 8%
or,
= 0.08 (q²)
q² = 0.08
q = √0.08
= 0.28284
Now,
⇒ [tex]p+q=1[/tex]
⇒ [tex]p=1-q[/tex]
[tex]=1-0.28284[/tex]
[tex]=0.717157[/tex]
hence,
For the HIV resistant allele, the proportion of people will be:
= [tex]Aa[/tex]
= [tex]2pq[/tex]
On substituting the values, we get
= [tex]2\times 0.71715\times 0.28284[/tex]
= [tex]0.4056[/tex]
= [tex]40.6[/tex] (%)
The proportion of the population with the carrier of HIV-resistant allele is 40.56%.
What is Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is the relationship between the variation from one generation to the next. The equation for the relationship can be given as:
[tex]p^2+2pq+q^2=1[/tex]
Where the proportion of dominant alleles is p².
The proportion of recessive alleles is q².
The proportion with the caries are 2pq.
The given recessive allele proportion in the population is 0.08. The proportion of dominant alleles can be given as:
[tex]q^2=0.08\\q=0.2828[/tex]
The dominant alleles can be given as:
[tex]p+q=1\\p+0.28284=1\\p=0.717157[/tex]
The carriers in the population can be given as:
[tex]\text{Carriers}=2pq\\\text{Carriers}=2\;\times\;0.717157\;\times\;0.2828\\\text{Carriers}=0.4056\\\text{Carriers}=40.56\%[/tex]
Thus, the carriers for the HIV gene in the population are 40.56%.
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the energy role responsible for capturing the energy from the sun and turning it into food is a
A. producer
B. Consumer
C. Decomposer
Answer:
A. Producer
Explanation:
The primary source of energy for almost every ecosystem on Earth is the sun. Primary producers use energy from the sun to produce their own food
Answer:
Hi, there the answer is A. producer
Explanation:
All food chains start with energy from the sun. This energy is captured by plants. Thus the living part of a food chain always starts with plant life and ends with an animal. Plants are called producers because they are able to use light energy from the sun to produce food (sugar) from carbon dioxide and water.
2. Which of the following is not true of protozoa?
© Lack cell wall
b) Produce no spore bearing structures
c) Comprise the microbial population known as phy
d) Form active feeding forms called trophozoites
Answer:
c) Comprise the microbial population known as phyIn an investigation, individual Rhabdostyla were placed into different concentrations of sea water.
The rate of water excreted by the contractile vacuðle of each organism was determined. The results
are shown in Fig. 4.2.
20
18-
16
[3]
14
12
rate of
water
excreted
um's
10
8-
6
4-
2
0
0
4
12
Explain the result
Answer:
placed into different concentrations of sea water.
The rate of water excreted by the contractile
Why will individuals have brown eyes rather than a blue eyes?Question 6 options:a)
Brown eyes is a mutation.
b)
Blue eyes is recessive.
c)
Blue eyes is dominant.
Answer:People with brown eyes have a large amount of melanin in the iris, ... leading to blue eyes instead of brown in people with a polymorphism in ... result from mutations in genes involved in the production and storage of melanin. ... Heterochromia can be caused by genetic changes or by a problem during eye
Explanation:
I AM SORRY IF AM WRONG
What conditions are needed do an accurate radiometric date to be obtained form a mineral sample?
Answer:
There are several conditions that are needed for an accurate radiometric date to be obtained from a mineral sample. These include:
The mineral must be a suitable type for radiometric dating. Some minerals are more suitable for radiometric dating than others due to their chemical composition and the type of radioactive isotope they contain.
The mineral must be in a closed system. This means that the mineral must not have exchanged any atoms with its surroundings since it formed. If atoms have entered or exited the mineral, it will not give an accurate radiometric date.
The mineral must be pure. If the mineral sample contains contaminants or impurities, it will not give an accurate radiometric date.
The mineral must be free of any damage or alteration. If the mineral has been damaged or altered in any way, it will not give an accurate radiometric date.
The mineral must be properly prepared and analyzed. The sample must be carefully prepared and analyzed using specialized equipment and techniques to ensure accuracy.
Overall, to obtain an accurate radiometric date from a mineral sample, it is important to ensure that the mineral is a suitable type, is in a closed system, is pure, is free of any damage or alteration, and is properly prepared and analyzed.
Explanation:
12. Which type of erosion forms limestone caves?
A. wind erosion
B. stream erosjon
C. groundwater erosion
Answer:
c. groundwater erosion
Answer:
Hello There!!
Explanation:
I believe the answer is C. groundwater erosion.
hope this helps,have a great day!!
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Which of the following factors of a gene determines the protein, and therefore the trait, it expresses in a cell
Where the cell is found in the organism.
The position inside of the nucleus.
Its length and sequence of nitrogen bases.
Its shape and color after cell reproduction.
What is the DNA test examining specifically?
It is comparing the protein enzymes.
It is looking for matching patterns of alleles.
It is trying to find a mutation.
It is examining the lipid level of the cells.
Answer:
it is examining the lipid level of the cells
Explanation:
The general procedure includes: 1) the isolation of the DNA from an evidence sample containing DNA of unknown origin, and generally at a later time, the isolation of DNA from a sample (e.g., blood) from a known individual; 2) the processing of the DNA so that test results may be obtained; 3) the determination of the ...