The vertebrae are those bones that will form the vertebral column and that will give protection to the spinal cord.
What will be the differences between the vertebrae?The vertebrae will have differences depending on the sector in which they are. The cervical vertebrae will have a more elongated shape at their ends, the thoracic vertebrae will be more rounded and will have faces to fit with the ribs, the lumbar vertebrae will be much more voluminous in the part of the body since they will have to support the weight of the body.
As for the intervertebral discs, they are those that will allow the spine to have flexibility and cushion the blows and pressures that exist between them. When these discs have a weakness in any of their parts due to an injury, a herniated disc can be generated that will cause a part of the disc to protrude and compress nearby nerves or the spinal cord.
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A patient who suffers from renal failure increases his water intake to account for his low urine output. What will happen to his electrolyte balance
The excess water his kidneys cannot excrete will dilute body fluids and lead to an imbalance in electrolytes.
By constantly filtering the blood, the kidneys maintain the body's fluid and electrolyte balance. This is necessary to keep the extracellular fluid volume & composition stable. Electrolytes are essential for maintaining homeostatic conditions with in body, as well as for conveying electrical impulses and information between cells. Electrolyte abnormalities are one of the most serious consequences of dehydration.
When the concentration of a mineral, or electrolyte, gets too high or too low in relation to the amount of water accessible in the body, an electrolyte imbalance ensues. While electrolyte levels are excessively high, the resultant condition is designated with the prefix "hyper-" and then when electrolyte levels were low, or deficient, the following condition usually denoted with the prefix "hypo-".
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the nurse is teaching a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who was prescribed oral theophylline. which client statement
I take cimetidine instead of omeprazole for heartburn is the phrase indicating that further instruction is necessary.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is just a lung illness that produces blocked airflow from the lungs. Breathing difficulties, coughing, mucus (sputum) production, and wheezing are all symptoms. The most prevalent illnesses that comprise COPD are emphysema and chronic bronchitis. COPD damage to a lungs cannot be reversed.
Shortness of breath, wheezing, or a persistent cough are all symptoms. Rescue inhalers and oral or inhaled steroids can help reduce symptoms and prevent additional harm.
Bronchodilators are a class of medications that include theophylline. Bronchodilators are medications that relax the muscle in the lungs' bronchial tubes (air channels). They alleviate coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing by improving air flow via the bronchial passages.
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Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain
Of the following which are primary benign tumors arising from the covering of the brain is meningioma.
What is a tumor?Tumors are lumps that appear as a result of body cells growing excessively. This condition occurs when old cells that should die still survive, while the formation of new cells continues to occur. Tumors can grow in any part of the body and can be benign or malignant.
Meningioma is a tumor that forms in the meninges, which coverings covering the brain and spinal cord.
These tumors can grow so large that they press on the brain and nerves and cause severe symptoms. Meningiomas are classified as benign tumors that develop very slowly, and may not even show signs for years.
Your question is incomplete. Maybe the point of your question is :
Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain
Meningioma tumorGlioma tumorLearn more about tumor symptoms here :
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Skin appendages, also referred to as....., include....
Eccrine glands are responsible for.....
The eccrine sweat gland is composed of ....
The eccrine sweat gland opens to...
Eccrine glands are mostly located on ...
Apocrine sweat glands are responsible for....
Apocrine sweat glands are mostly located on...
Apocrine sweat glands open to...
Apocrine sweat glands are composed of...
Answer: The eccrine sweat glands concerned with temperature regulation are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic fibers, unlike apocrine glands on palms and soles which are influenced by circulating substances, including catecholamines.
Explanation:
Answer to the question in the picture ?
Answer:
The result is exhaled air contains less oxygen and more carbon dioxide than the inhaled air. The air in the lungs also becomes humidified with water before it is exhaled.
Explanation:
The concentration of oxygen is higher in exhaled air than in alveolar air because exhaled air is partially comprised of air that has never made it deep enough in the lungs for the oxygen to be absorbed into the blood.
Trevor is assigned to the immunization station at the health drive where he is responsible for administering vaccines to the children. Immunizations are an example of
Immunizations are an example of a primary prevention technique that aims to prevent the spread of viral diseases. The dead or inactivated viral particles are introduced into the body to develop primary immunity.
Primary prevention is to promote health and involves health education initiatives, vaccinations, and physical and dietary fitness routines. It can be given to an individual and consists of activities aimed at preserving or enhancing people's overall well-being, as well as the health of their families and communities. Additionally, it incorporates certain safeguards like hearing protection in professional contexts. This system will coordinate an immune response when it is exposed to molecules that are non-self, or alien to the body, and it will also improve its capacity to react swiftly to a repeat encounter due to immunological memory. The immune system's adaptive role is this.
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Howard ha a chemical burn from accidentally pilling a trong baic cleaning olution onto hi arm. It caue a mall mark that goe away after a few week. He ha no other ymptom. What kind of expoure i thi conidered?
Inadvertently piling a potent basic cleaning solution onto his arm, Howard now has a chemical burn.It causes a small mark that goes away after a few weeks. He has no other symptoms. It is called caustic type exposure.
A caustic exposure is when a person is exposed to chemicals found in typical cleaning supplies for the home, such as detergents, cleaning solutions, drain cleaners, etc.These contain caustic materials, such as sodium hydroxide, sulfuric acid, etc., which have high acid or base concentrations. Due to its higher concentration when exposed directly to the skin, it may burn the skin, resulting in redness, irritation, numbness, or a blackening of the skin's surface.These markings typically disappear after a few weeks since they are superficial or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermal layer of the skin.
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Identify the correct match between a type of lipid and a food that contains a considerable amount of it. Answer a. saturated fat / meat b. polyunsaturated fat / yogurt c. cholesterol / peanut butter d. monounsaturated fat / coconut oil
Identification of the right match between the type of lipid and foods that contain lots of fat is A. Saturated fat/meat.
What is dietary fat?Fat is a hydrophobic organic substance that is poorly soluble in water, but soluble in organic solvents such as chloroform, ether, and benzene.
The main function of fat for the body is as an energy material and stores the most energy in the body. Healthy fats have other functions in the body and it takes an adequate amount of fat in the diet for good health. One of the foods that contain a lot of fat is meat.
If the consumption of saturated fat is above 10% of total energy, there is a risk of increasing LDL levels which play a role in carrying cholesterol to the coronary arteries.
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Describe the difference in roles between leadership and management. Explain how the goals of management and leadership overlap and provide one example. As a nurse leader, describe how you can facilitate change by taking advantage of this overlap
Leadership focuses on vision and inspiration while management focuses on organization and execution. Both aim to achieve organization's objectives and improve performance, but with different approaches. Goals overlap when both leadership and management work together towards a shared vision.
Leadership and management are two distinct, yet closely related roles in an organization. Leadership is focused on vision, direction, and inspiration, while management is focused on organization, control, and execution. The goals of management and leadership often overlap, as both aim to achieve the organization's objectives and improve performance. One example of this overlap is in the goal of creating a positive work culture. A manager may focus on implementing policies and procedures to ensure a positive work environment, while a leader may focus on inspiring and motivating employees to work towards a shared vision.
As a nurse leader, facilitating change by taking advantage of the overlap between leadership and management can be done by aligning the team with a shared vision of the desired change, and utilizing management tools and resources to implement that change. For example, if the goal is to improve patient satisfaction, a nurse leader can communicate the vision of providing exceptional patient care and empower the team to take ownership of the change by involving them in the decision-making process. Additionally, the nurse leader can use management tools such as data analysis, process improvement, and performance monitoring to track progress and make necessary adjustments to ensure the change is successful.
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Which of the following nursing measures has the highest priority when an intrapartum woman has a prolapsed umbilical cord
Place sterile gloved hand into patient's vagina to push the fetus off the umbilical cord.
Which of the following are risk factors for prolapsed umbilical cord?Risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse include abnormal fetal presentation, multiparity, low birth weight, prematurity, polyhydramnios, and spontaneous rupture of membranes, particularly in those with high Bishop scores. The flexible, tube-like umbilical cord that connects the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The baby's lifeline to the mother is the umbilical cord. It delivers nutrients to the infant and removes waste from the infant. It consists of two arteries and one vein, making up its three blood vessels. Uncommon but potentially fatal obstetric emergency is umbilical cord prolapse. The prolapsed cord is compressed between the fetal presenting portion and the cervix when this happens during labor or delivery.
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An infant's ventilatory rate generally is too fast to sustain adequate tidal volume when the rate is over
An infant's ventilatory rate generally is too fast to sustain adequate tidal volume when the rate is over 60 breaths per minute.
The positive pressure ventilation technique is one of the resuscitation measures that aim to introduce air into the baby's lungs. Ventilation measures are carried out by placing a mask (oxygen mask) with a size that fits the baby's face so that it covers the baby's chin, mouth, and nose.
If there is no breathing or the baby is gasping, positive pressure ventilation is initiated using a resuscitation bag and mask, at a rate of 40-60 breaths/minute. If the heart rate is <100 beats/min, even if the baby is breathing, VTP should be started at a rate of 40-60 beats/min. If the heart rate is still <60 bpm after 30 adequate pressure ventilation, chest compressions should be started.
So, adequate tidal volume baby's when the rate is over 60 bpm.
This question is multiple choice:
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
The correct answer is A.
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Your patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to: percuss for ascites. assess for rebound tenderness. inspect for ecchymosis of the flank. assess for rebound tenderness.
Inspecting for ecchymosis of the flank is an important part of physical examination when a patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting.
Ecchymosis is the medical term for a bruise, which is the result of blood leaking out of damaged blood vessels. The flank is the area between the lower rib and the pelvis, and it can be easily inspected for a bruise.
Bruising in this area can be an indication of certain medical conditions, such as pancreatitis. This is because pancreatitis often results in a tear or rupture of the pancreas, which can cause bleeding and subsequent bruising in the flank area. Pancreatitis is also known to cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula, as well as nausea and vomiting. Therefore, it is important to inspect for ecchymosis of the flank to rule out pancreatitis as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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The nurse has educated the client on the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis and degenerative joint disease. This type of teaching best illustrates which learning theory
The nurse's teaching on the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis and degenerative joint disease best illustrates the learning theory of cognitive-constructivism. This theory suggests that learning is an active process in which individuals construct new knowledge and meaning from their experiences.
By educating the client on the pathophysiology of the disease, the nurse is providing the client with the necessary information to understand their condition, and the client is actively processing and constructing new knowledge about their condition. Additionally, this type of teaching also emphasizes the client's autonomy and encourages them to take an active role in their own care, which aligns with the principles of cognitive-constructivism. By providing the client with a thorough understanding of their condition, the nurse is empowering them to make informed decisions about their care and treatment.
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Audrey has been having fatty stools and pains after eating, especially after eating high fat meals. Which of the following is most likely the cause
The reason Audrey experienced fatty and painful stools after eating, especially after eating high-fat foods, was a bacterial infection in the digestive tract.
What is fatty stool?Fatty stools are referred to as Steatorrhea. Steatorrhea that does not occur for a long enough period of time can be caused by the type of food consumed. It usually occurs after consuming foods with a high content of fat, fiber, and potassium oxalate.
Too much of this content is consumed, causing the digestive system to not be able to break down food properly. It can even be caused by an infection in the digestive tract.
Your question is incomplete. Maybe the point of your question is :
Audrey has been having fatty stools and pains after eating, especially after eating high-fat meals. Which of the following is most likely the cause
Infection in the digestive tractHigh blood pressureStomach acidLearn more about dietary measures for steatorrhea here :
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After a bronchoscopy because of suspected cancer of the lung, a client develops pleural effusion. What should the nurse conclude is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion
Cancerous lesions in the pleural space increase the osmotic pressure, causing a shift of fluid to that space.
Excessive fluid consumption is generally offset by increased urine production. Pleural effusion causes insufficient chest expansion, although it is not the cause of it. The pleural space is not involved in a bronchoscopy.
The pleural effusion is just a collection of fluid between the tissue layers that border the lungs or chest cavity. Pleural fluid is produced in modest amounts by the body to lubricate the pleural surfaces. It's the thin tissue that borders or surrounds the lungs in the chest cavity. Pleural effusion seems to be an abnormally large accumulation of this fluid.
Your doctor will check you and inquire about your symptoms. The physician will also use a stethoscope to listen to ones lungs and tap (percuss) the chest or upper back. A chest CT scan or x-ray may be sufficient for your provider to make a therapy decision.
If there is lot of fluid that is causing chest heaviness, shortness of breath or a reduced oxygen level, it may be removed (thoracentesis). The removal of the fluid helps the lung to expand, which makes breathing easier.
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The fastest, and probably the most effective, treatment for severe cases of depression is
A.imipramine (Tofranil).
B.paroxetine (Paxil).
C.electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
D.psychotherapy.
Electroconvulsive therapy is the quickest and most likely successful treatment for severe instances of depression (ECT).
The correct option is C.
Exists a current electroconvulsive therapy?ECT is frequently still an option for those who are unable to take drugs for mental health issues for whatever reason. This can significantly alter a person's quality of life if they have issues with organ function or are expecting (ECT is safe during all three trimesters of pregnancy). When used in conjunction with medicine, it is very helpful.
Why would someone use electroconvulsive therapy?Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure that uses small electric currents to deliberately induce a brief seizure in the brain while the patient is under general anesthesia. The indications and symptoms of a number of mental health issues tend to be quickly relieved by ECT because it appears to change the brain's chemistry.
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Which of the following medications should be questioned by the nurse, if ordered by the provider to treat a patient's complaint of nausea and vomiting
If ordered to treat a patient's complaints of nausea and vomiting, the drug nurse should ask "can domperidone be able to treat nausea and vomiting?"
What is nausea?Nausea is a self-defense mechanism that causes an uncomfortable sensation in the stomach and makes a person feel like throwing up.
Nausea is not a disease, but a symptom caused by certain conditions. Nausea is a protective mechanism that indicates that the body is being attacked by germs or toxins.
Domperidone is a drug used to stop nausea and vomiting. This drug is also used to treat pain or discomfort in the stomach due to gastroparesis.
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The "chain of infection," i.e., the transmission of infectious agents in healthcare settings requires a ________________.
A. Source or reservoir of infectious agents
B. Susceptible host with a portal of entry receptive of the agent
C. Mode of transmission for the agent
D. All of the above
The chain of infection in a healthcare setting requires: (A) Source or reservoir of infectious agents; (B) Susceptible host with a portal of entry receptive of the agent; and (C) Mode of transmission for the agent.
Infection is the invasion and the multiplication of small microorganisms inside the living body. These microorganisms may release toxic substances into the host body and they may interfere with the normal functioning of the host resulting in diseases,
Infectious agents are the small microorganisms that have the potential to enter the host body and cause diseases. The example of infectious agents is bacteria, virus, parasite, fungi, etc.
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A school-aged child is admitted to the pediatric unit with the diagnosis of a brain tumor. During breakfast the child vomits. What are the priority nursing interventions
After being diagnosed with a brain tumor, the child vomited during breakfast. In such a situation the nurse should first inform the health care in charge and should then request a reevaluation to assess the severity of the condition.
A growing brain tumor occupies more and more area inside the skull, raising intracranial pressure. Nausea may result from this increased pressure. Hormone levels can be impacted by brain tumors, which can make a person feel queasy. Brain tumor-related general signs and symptoms may include:
A headache's new onset or pattern change.headaches that gradually get worse and occur more frequently.vomiting or nausea without cause.vision issues including double vision, blurry vision, or reduced peripheral vision.gradual loss of feeling or motion in a leg or arm.Problems with equilibrium.speech impediments.To know more about brain tumor, please visit
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A young woman is brought into a medical clinic by her husband. She complains of hyperactivity and weight loss. She also appears to be mentally sluggish and has difficulty concentrating when questioned by a nurse. There is a slight swelling in the anterior of her neck. Which condition do you suspect
Answer:
She has hypothyroidism.
Explanation:
She is either not getting enough iodine, growth in the thyroid, or just swelling. The two treatment options are radioactive iodine supplements or the removal of the thyroid.
In ______ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. patient-assisted. B. peer-assisted
the nurse is assessing a child with cyanosis. the. nurse observes that there is clubbing of the finger in the child. which condition does the nurse sispevt int he chidl
The thickening and flattening of the finger and toe tips are called clubbing. It results from persistent tissue hypoxia and is a sign of a cardiac problem. So, the nurse will suspect a heart disease condition in the given situation.
When you have cyanosis, your skin, lips, and/or nails take on a bluish hue. It happens when your blood doesn't have enough oxygen to go to all of the tissues in your body. Nail clubbing is a structural change to the fingernails or toenails that causes them to resemble an upside-down spoon and turn red and sponge-like. It might happen by itself or in combination with other symptoms like coughing or shortness of breath. All these symtpoms together indicate that the heart is not able to pump enough blood into the system which is causing oxygen deficiency.
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During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.
C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations.
D. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke.
During the primary assessment of a 70 year old subconscious female, it is important to ensure a patient’s airway and support ventilation as needed.
This should be done in order to check for signs of stroke to check breathing and circulation of blood to the brain. When blood flow to the brain is obstructed, it leads to losing consciousness and partial paralysis which is a symptom of stroke. When blood flow to the brain is cut-off, it prevents the tissues in the brain from taking up nutrients and oxygen which results in the death of brain cells, which further causes brain death. Fast diagnosis is important for patients in such critical conditions. This may be caused due to high blood pressure or high glucose levels in the patient’s blood.
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which site would the nurse asses first for the amount of drainage from a client discharged from the postanesthesia care unit
The surgical site would the nurse asses first for the amount of drainage from a client discharged from the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit.
The circulating OR nurse and/or anesthesiologist who is delivering the patient to recovery will provide the PACU nurse with a comprehensive verbal report. The PACU nurse assesses the patient's airway, respiratory, and circulatory state immediately, then concentrates on a more complete evaluation.
A post-anesthesia care unit is an essential component of hospitals, ambulatory care clinics, and other healthcare institutions. Patients who have undergone general, regional, or local anaesthesia are transported from the operating room suites to the recovery area. Anesthesiologists, certified registered nurse anaesthetists, and other medical personnel routinely watch the patients. Providers follow a structured handoff to the medical PACU personnel that includes information such as which drugs were administered in the operating room suites, how hemodynamics were during the operations, and what is expected for their recovery. Patients are watched for any possible issues after initial assessment and stabilisation until they are moved back to their hospital rooms.
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A medical assistant is administering an intramuscular immunization to a patient. Which one of the following actions should the medical assistant take
The actions that must be performed by medical assistants when administering intramuscular immunization are carried out on large muscled parts of the body.
What is intramuscular injection?The action of injection or administration of drugs intramuscularly is carried out for drug administration. The benefit of this type of injection is that the drug is absorbed by the body quickly.
The medicinal liquid is inserted directly into the muscles which have many blood vessels and is generally done on large muscular parts of the body so that there is no possibility of puncturing the nerves. This kind of drug administration allows the drug to be released periodically in the form of drug depots.
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describe the effects of varying the jet size or entrainment port opening on fio2 and total flow rate
Increasing jet size or opening the entrainment port will increase the FiO2 and total flow rate, while decreasing jet size or closing the entrainment port will decrease the FiO2 and total flow rate.
The jet size and entrainment port opening are features of oxygen delivery devices such as nasal cannulas or simple face masks that are used to control the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient. The jet size refers to the size of the opening where the oxygen is delivered to the patient, while the entrainment port is an opening that allows room air to mix with the oxygen being delivered.
When the jet size is increased or the entrainment port is opened, more oxygen is delivered to the patient, increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen). This means that the percentage of oxygen in the air the patient is breathing is higher. However, this also results in an increase in the total flow rate, which is the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient overall.
On the other hand, when the jet size is decreased or the entrainment port is closed, less oxygen is delivered to the patient, decreasing the FiO2. This also results in a decrease in the total flow rate.
It's important to note that the desired FiO2 and total flow rate will depend on the patient's condition and treatment plan, and the nurse should adjust the oxygen delivery device accordingly and monitor the patient's oxygen saturation level.
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A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client
The medication which the nurse must prepare to administer to the client is calcitonin (miacalcin), which means option C is the right answer.
Thyroid gland is present near the neck region, which secretes hormone called as thyroxin. It is an endocrine gland. In hyperthyroidism excess amount of this hormone is secreted due to which the metabolism of the body becomes very high, and person may suffer from loss of weight, irregularity in heartbeats etc. Hyperparathyroidism is often confused with it. It is caused due to excess secretion of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid gland. In it, symptoms like chronic fatigue, body aches, difficulty sleeping, kidney stones and osteoporosis are observed. Calcitonin regulates calcium usage by the body.
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To refer complete question, see below:
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?
1. Calcium chloride
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
4. Large doses of vitamin D
Discuss the organizational structure that you, as the nurse administrator for SLMC, believe would be most appropriate. Use a specific organizational theory to support your decision and discuss how this structure may impact the organization's outcomes
The most appropriate organizational structure for SLMC would be a matrix organizational structure, which is based on the contingency theory.
This structure would allow SLMC to combine the strengths of both functional and divisional organizational structures, allowing for flexibility, improved communication, and the ability to respond to changes in the external environment.
This structure would also allow for more efficient decision-making processes, as well as increased coordination and collaboration between departments.
Additionally, this structure would also enable SLMC to create specialized departments and teams which are better equipped for responding to specific situations and challenges. The matrix structure would also allow for better alignment of resources with specific goals and objectives, allowing SLMC to maximize its outcomes.
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Jasmine received a chemotherapy order for a patient. She calculated the dose needed to be 25 mL. Which syringe size should Jasmine choose to fill the order
Jasmine ought to select a syringe size greater than 25 mL. Chemotherapy's key benefit is that it can be used to treat a variety of cancers, even ones that have spread to other body parts.
What is mean by chemotherapy? What are chemotherapy's benefits and drawbacks?Drugs are used in chemotherapy, a type of cancer treatment, to kill cancer cells. Both methods of the medicines' options: either the medications can be taken directly into the bloodstream or the drugs can be taken directly into an injection into the blood. Both methods of the drugs can either Chemotherapy can be applied either on its own or in conjunction with other therapies like radiation or surgery.
In order to improve the likelihood of success, chemotherapy medications can also be used in conjunction with other therapies.
Chemotherapy has drawbacks, including the possibility of side effects like nausea, hair loss, exhaustion, and an elevated risk of infection. Chemotherapy medications can also be costly and may not be covered by insurance.
Overall, chemotherapy can be a very effective cancer treatment, but it's crucial to balance the benefits and drawbacks before choosing a course of action.
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Which task is achieved by the delegator when he or she engages in self-care to enhance his or her ability to care for the healthcare team
The delegator renews himself or herself in order to improve his or her abilities to care for the healthcare team.
The delegator completes the work of renewing when he or she participates in self-care to improve his or her capacity to care again for healthcare team. When the delegator aids the staff with planning, prioritisation, and decision-making, they are managing. Whenever the delegator teaches or interprets material for the client's benefit, this is referred to as explaining. Motivating occurs when the delegator motivates the personnel to complete a mission.
The healthcare team's responsibility is to address patients' problems or answer their inquiries concerning their health and very well. Discuss subjects such as adequate diet and cleanliness with patients to help them take care of their health. Determine and treat injuries and diseases. Some professionals, such as surgeons, can perform surgery on patients to treat ailments.
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