A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is a(n) Advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the state in which services are provided, has a graduate degree in a defined clinical area of nursing from an accredited educational institution, and is certified.
What is the central nervous system?The brain and spinal cord make up the majority of the central nervous system (CNS), which is a component of the nervous system. The brain controls and regulates the activity of all sections of the bodies of bilaterally symmetric and triploblastic animals—all multicellular organisms aside from sponges and diploblasts—and integrates the information that is received, giving the CNS its name.
It is a structure made of nerve tissue that runs the length of the body, from rostral (the nose end) to caudal (the tail end). It may have a brain at the rostral end that is larger.
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What is a warning sign that suggests a weight-loss plan is a fad diet rather than a healthy weight-loss plan
The warning sign that suggests a weight-loss plan is a fad diet rather than a healthy weight-loss plan are promising rapid weight loss, requires eliminating foods, has rigid rules and severely restrict calories.
A fad diet is a diet that is popular for a brief period of time, analogous to fashion fads, without being a normal dietary prescription and frequently making pseudoscientific or unrealistic claims for rapid weight reduction or health advantages. Fad diets are not backed up by clinical research, and their health advice are not peer-reviewed, therefore they frequently make unfounded claims concerning health and illness.
A healthy diet is one that promotes or maintains good health. A healthy diet supplies the body with vital nourishment, including liquids, macronutrients like protein, micronutrients like vitamins, and enough fibre and dietary energy. A healthy diet may include fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, as well as little or no processed food or sugary beverages. A mix of plant-based and animal-based foods can meet the needs for a balanced diet, however vegans will need a non-plant source of vitamin B12.
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A nurse working in a community health center is preparing a flow sheet detailing essential screenings according to age group. At which developmental stage on the chart should the nurse add scoliosis screening
The nurse should add scoliosis screening in the Pre-adolescent/adolescent phase of the developmental stage.
Scoliosis screening refers to physical testing of the body which includes full body X ray, spinal radiograph and MRI. It is performed in growing children because at that age they tend to grow stronger bones and muscles. The major symptoms of Scoliosis is uneven shoulders, uneven length of the arms of legs etc. It is caused due to degeneration of spinal disc and is irreversible in nature and so far not much cure has been determined. Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type of scoliosis and is usually diagnosed during age of puberty.
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The nurse manager of an ICU wants to implement the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care. What would be the most effective method of getting the staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care
The most effective method of getting staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care would be through education and training.
Education and training are key to the successful implementation of a new evidence-based practice. The nurse manager should start by providing the staff nurses with information about the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care, including the evidence that supports it and how it differs from current practice. The manager should also provide opportunities for the staff nurses to ask questions and provide feedback, which can help to address any concerns they may have. After this,the manager should provide hands-on training and give the staff nurses the opportunity to practice the new skills in a safe and controlled environment. Finally, the manager should provide ongoing support, including regular check-ins and supervision, to ensure that the staff nurses are able to consistently implement the new practice and provide quality care to patients. In addition, regular feedback and evaluation of the new practice implementation will be helpful to measure the effectiveness of the new practice and make necessary adjustments.
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During pregnancy a woman's cardiovascular system expands to care for the growing fetus. After birth, during the early postpartum period, the woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying. What is one way she does this
One way a woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying during the early postpartum period is through urinary elimination.
After birth, the woman's body works to return to its pre-pregnancy state and one of the ways it does this is by excreting the excess fluid through urine. This process is facilitated by the increased blood flow to the kidneys, which helps to filter and excrete the excess fluid. The body also increases urine production, which helps to get rid of the excess fluid more quickly. Other ways that a woman can eliminate additional fluid volume include sweating and bowel movements.
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The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs
The anticipated pH if the placement of the nasogastric tube is in the lungs is 6, which means option D is the right answer.
The pH is the concentration of hydrogen ions inside a medium. A pH of 6 indicates that the medium is lightly acidic. When the tube is inserted into the lungs, the pH is acidic because of the presence of carbon dioxide which is acidic in nature as it form carbonic acid inside. Auscultation is used at the bedside to check for appropriate placement of a nasogastric tube. Chest radiography is the gold standard for confirming appropriate placement. It is used for feeding purposes to the people who cannot eat voluntarily, or breath properly.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Individuals should participate in activities __________ to improve cardiovascular fitness. A. twice a day B. three to five days a week C. two to three days a week D. seven days a week Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D Mark this and return
Individuals should participate in activities three to five days a week to improve cardiovascular fitness. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Three to five days a week is the recommendation from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) and the American Heart Association (AHA) for adults to participate in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 minutes per week, or vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 75 minutes per week, or a combination of both, spread across at least three days of the week. This frequency of physical activity is sufficient to achieve cardiovascular fitness and improve overall health.
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Answer: b
Explanation:
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)
Children should be restricted to approximately 30 minutes of vigorous exercise in hot and humid environments including frequent rest periods.
Exercise is any form of physical activity of the body that results in a healthy and active body. There are several forms of exercise from mild brisk walking to high intensity exercises like weight lifting, cardio, etc. The goal for exercising could be different among different individuals like weight loss, muscle gain, fitness, etc.
Rest period is the small duration time interval where a person does not exercise. The aim of rest period is that the body gains back its strength and power. The muscles are allowed to recover during this stage. It usually lasts from 2-5 minutes.
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The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a pregnant woman about the signs and symptoms to be reported immediately to her health care provider. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse include
Headache with visual changes in the third trimester sudden leakage of fluid during the second trimester lower abdominal pain with shoulder pain in the first trimester.
Which advice should the nurse give to a pregnant client who is 26 weeks along and has constipation complaints?
In addition to improving dietary fiber and water intake, moderate daily exercise is the primary line of treatment for constipation. Laxatives are the second line of treatment if these are ineffective.
Which advice would the nurse give to a pregnant client to deal with morning sickness?
Regularly consume small meals because nausea is often brought on by an empty stomach. Avoiding meal preparation or cooking may be beneficial. Take in as much liquid as you can. It can be beneficial to sometimes sip on diluted fruit juice, cordial, weak tea, ginger tea, clear soup, or beverages containing beef extract.
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An OTR who works in a hospital setting is collaborating with the interprofessional team to promote health literacy for all patients. In addition to reviewing the reading level and clarity of patient education handouts, what action is BEST for the OTR to recommend as part of this process
The best action for the OTR (or occupational therapist) to recommend as part of promoting health literacy for all patients in a hospital setting would be to provide individualized instruction and education to patients and their families.
The action could include teaching patients how to understand and manage their own health conditions, providing instruction on how to use medical equipment and devices, and helping patients understand and navigate the healthcare system. Additionally, the OTR can work with the interprofessional team to develop and implement strategies to improve health literacy among all patients, such as providing education in languages other than English or using plain language to communicate medical information.
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Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a woman is developing a postpartum complication?
A) an absence of lochia
B) red-colored lochia for the first 24 hours
C) lochia that is the color of menstrual blood
D) lochia appearing pinkish-brown on the fourth day
An absence of lochia lead nurses to suspect that a woman is developing a postpartum complication. Women should discharge their after giving birth. No flow is abnormal; This indicates dehydration due to infection and fever.
What are the three postpartum periods?The postpartum period can be divided into three distinct periods; early or acute phase, 8 to 19 hours after birth; the subacute postpartum period, which lasts two to six weeks, and the late postpartum period, which can last up to eight months.
What is the most common cause of postpartum?After giving birth, a drastic drop in the levels of the hormones estrogen and progesterone in your body can contribute to postpartum depression. Other hormones produced by the thyroid gland can also plummet, leaving you feeling tired, sluggish, and depressed. Emotional problem.
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A majority of the land in the Middle East is unsuitable for crops because
ocean water cannot be converted to freshwater.
freshwater sources are scarce in the region.
people cannot live in these desert areas.
mountains block water from coming inland
Most of the Middle East's land is unsuited for farming because mountains prevent water from entering the interior.
Why is farming in the Middle East so challenging?The world population is expected to exceed 10 billion people by 2050, and there will be a growing gap between the amount of agricultural products produced and the foods that will be needed. Growing urbanisation activities and severe climatic change contribute to soil degradation, which reduces the amount of arable land and increases water shortages, resulting in low agricultural output and supply chain problems.
Due to severe weather, an arid climate, and a lack of natural resources that make agriculture production difficult, the Middle East regions still rely heavily on imports to supply the population's food demands.
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in the word neuroscience, what does “neuro” refer to?
A nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired nonverbal patient on a medical-surgical unit. In what ways should the nurse assess the patient's pain
The ways by which the nurse can assess the pain of the cognitively impaired nonverbal patient are: (1) The behavioral pain scale, (2) Nonverbal pain assessment tool, and (3) A pain estimate made by a family member.
Cognitive impairment refers to the condition where the person is unable to perform the cognitive functions of the brain like learning, remembering, concentrating or making simple decisions of everyday life. Hence it is a decline in the mental abilities of a person.
A pain scale is a medical tool used by the doctors to estimate the pain of the patient. These range from the numbers 0 to 10, where 0 indicates no pain while 10 indicates intense pain.
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What's the primary focus of the pharmacy technician?
How are pharmacy technicians required to continue training after graduation?
What’s the difference between a drug’s brand name and generic name?
The primary focus of the pharmacy technician is to process and dispense prescribed drugs (question 1). Pharmacy technicians are required to continue training after graduation because new drugs appear and they need to be correctly prescribed (question 2). The difference between a drug’s brand name and a generic name is the fact that the generic name is not technical.
What is the primary role of a pharmacy technician?The primary role of a pharmacy technician is to provide proper prescriptions for approved drugs for specific patients.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the primary role of a pharmacy technician is based on the prescription of different drugs, which requires continuous specialization after graduation.
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smoke free laws, fluoridation of drinking water, and fortification of flour with folic acid are examples of which type of public health intervention
Changing the context to make the default decision healthy type of public health intervention
Any activity or program that seeks to enhance the overall physical and mental well-being of the population is considered a public
health intervention. Governmental health departments and non-governmental groups are just two examples of the entities that may carry out public health interventions (NGOs). Typical intervention kinds include screening programs, vaccinations, supplemental food and drink, and health promotion. Obesity, use of drugs, alcohol, and tobacco[4], and the spread of infectious diseases, such HIV, are common problems that are the focus of public health efforts.
If a policy avoids disease on both an individual and community level and has a beneficial effect on public health, it may fit the definition of a public health intervention.
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You arrive on the scene to find CPR in progress. Nursing staff report the patient was recovering from a pulmonary embolism and suddenly collapsed. Two shocks have been delivered, and an IV has been initiated. What do you administer now
Epinephrine 1 mg IV is the drug of choice in this case because it is a sympathomimetic drug which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output.
The patient has suffered a sudden collapse, and an increase in heart rate and blood pressure is needed to revive the patient. Epinephrine 1 mg IV will also increase the amount of oxygen to the heart, which is essential for resuscitation.
Additionally, epinephrine can help reverse pulmonary edema, which is a common complication of pulmonary embolism. It can also help to restore circulation to the patient's organs and tissues. Epinephrine is the drug of choice in this situation because it can be administered quickly and it is effective in increasing heart rate and blood pressure in cases of sudden collapse.
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Which of the following is an explanation for why therapeutic misconception might happen in a phase I trial of a cancer medication
Patients may not understand the risks associated with a phase I trial, leading them to mistakenly believe the trial is intended to provide direct therapeutic benefit.
What is phase I trial of a cancer medication?A phase I trial of a cancer medication is the first step in testing a new drug or treatment for cancer. This type of clinical trial is designed to test the safety of a drug or therapy and to determine the best dosage to give patients. During the trial, a small group of individuals will be given the drug or therapy and monitored closely to evaluate any side effects or other safety concerns.The trial will also assess how the body absorbs the new drug or therapy, how it is metabolized, and what the maximum tolerated dose is. This information is used to determine the best dosage for future trials. If a drug or therapy passes the phase I trial, it will then be tested in larger groups of people in phase II trials.Phase I trials can be a critical step in developing new treatments for cancer. The information obtained from the trial can help researchers understand how a drug or therapy works in the body and how it should be used in the future. It can also provide the basis for larger clinical trials that may result in more effective therapies.To learn more about cancer medication refer to:
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A nurse is providing teaching to clients in a short-term rehabilitation facility. Which examples are common teaching mistakes made by health care professionals
In a short-term rehabilitation facility The nurse does not acknowledge the client's right to change their decision.
When describing the lesson plan, the nurse frequently refers to medical terminology.
The nurse disregards the environment's limitations for the client.
Along with the promotion of wellness, disease prevention, treatment, and palliative care, rehabilitation is a crucial component of universal health coverage.
Rehabilitation supports involvement in education, employment, leisure activities, and significant life roles like caring for a family and promotes independence in daily activities for children, adults, and elderly individuals.
There are currently 2.4 billion people living with a health condition that would benefit from rehabilitation on a global scale.
Due to changes in population health and features, there will likely be a greater need for rehabilitation services globally. For instance, although individuals are living longer, there are more chronic illnesses and disabilities.
Rehabilitative needs are still mostly unfulfilled. More than 50% of people live in several low- and middle-income countries.
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An outbreak of salmonellosis occurred after an epidemiology department luncheon, which was attended by 485 faculty and staff. Assume everyone ate the same food items. Sixty-five people had fever and diarrhea; five of these people were severely affected. Subsequent laboratory tests on everyone who attended the luncheon revealed an additional 72 cases. Foods served at the luncheon included home-canned olives, chicken salad, homemade flavored drink mix, freshly baked rolls, and raw vegetables. Based on your understanding of foods that potentially are capable of transmitting salmonella, the most likely source of the outbreak was:
Answer:
Raw vegetables could possibly be the cause.
Explanation:
Raw fruits and vegetables can be potentially transmittable foods for salmonellosis; it is especially dangerous when raw vegetables are not properly disinfected, so it is important to wash them with drinking water and carry out an adequate disinfection process.
To prepare the chicken salad, the chicken was possibly previously cooked.
Answer:
137/137+348 = 28.2%
Explanation:
what is the primary difference between an automatic aed and a semi-automatic aed?
The primary difference between an automatic AED and a semi-automatic AED is that semi-automatic AED will firstly ask before giving a shock, whereas, automatic AED will automatically give the shock.
Semi-automatic AEDs will ask the deliverer to press a button to deliver a shock to the victim, therefore leaving it up to them to actually deliver the treatment. Completely automatic AEDs, on the other hand, automate this entire process and will deliver the shock automatically.
When the pads are in place, the AED automatically measures the person's heart meter and determines if a shock isneeded.However, the machine tells the stoner to stand back and push a button to deliver the shock, If it is. The AED is programmed not to deliver a shock if a shock is not demanded.
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what is the purpose of the reflex arc
Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:
Based on the results of the physical examination, the client has hyperthyroidism. If the thyroid gland is enlarged, use the bell to listen for vascular sounds. The blood supply is dramatically increased in a hypermetabolic state, and a vascular bruit, a soft rushing sound, may be heard.
The thyroid gland is an important hormone gland that regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the human body. It aids in the regulation of many body functions by continuously releasing a consistent amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.
Hyperthyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. This condition is also known as overactive thyroid. Hyperthyroidism causes the body's metabolism to accelerate. This can result in a variety of symptoms, including weight loss and hand tremors.
Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:
A. hypothyroidism.
B. hyperthyroidism.
C. thyroid cancer.
D. thyroid cyst.
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Which assessment finding for a client with Cushing disease would the nurse need to report immediately to the Health care provider
The nurse should immediately report signs and symptoms of hypokalemia, such as an irregular apical pulse, to the physician.
Cushing's syndrome is caused by an increase in the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary gland (secondary hypercortisolism). This is most commonly caused by a pituitary adenoma (particularly pituitary basophilism) or by an excess of hypothalamic CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) (tertiary hypercortisolism/hypercorticism) that increases the adrenal glands' manufacture of cortisol. Pituitary adenomas are responsible for 80% of endogenous Cushing's syndrome when exogenously supplied corticosteroids are excluded. Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction is the horse variant of this condition.
Cushing's disease symptoms are similar to those observed in other types of Cushing's syndrome. Patients with Cushing's disease often exhibit one or more signs and symptoms as a result of elevated cortisol or ACTH levels. Although it is unusual, some Cushing's disease patients have massive pituitary tumours (macroadenomas). Aside from the significant hormonal impact of increasing blood cortisol levels, the big tumour might compress nearby tissues. These tumours have the potential to compress the nerves that transmit information from the eyes, resulting in a loss of peripheral vision. Cushing's condition can potentially cause glaucoma and cataracts. Obesity and impaired linear growth are the two most common symptoms in children.
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The nurse is reinforcing education to a client with a venous thromboembolism who is prescribed rivaroxaban. Which statement by the client indicates the medication teaching has been effective?
1. "I need to continue to avoid eating spinach and kale."
2. "I probably will have some weakness in my legs when I take this medicine."
3. "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
4. "I will have to get blood drawn routinely to check my clotting levels."
Answer: 3 "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
Factor Xa inhibitors (eg, rivaroxaban [Xarelto], edoxaban, apixaban) are anticoagulants used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism. Factor Xa inhibitors are being prescribed more frequently than other oral anticoagulants (eg, warfarin), as they have a lower risk of bleeding and require less ongoing monitoring (eg, PT/INR).
The combined anticoagulant effects increase the risk for uncontrolled bleeding and hemorrhage.
What is rivaroxaban ?
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant drug (blood thinner) used to treat and prevent blood clots. It is marketed under the trade names Xarelto and others. In particular, it is used to avoid blood clots in atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary emboli as well as to treat these conditions, as well as to prevent them after hip or knee surgery. It is ingested orally.
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Most of our drugs originally came either directly or indirectly from
-South America.
-plants.
-petroleum.
-German chemists
Most drugs known to man came either directly or indirectly from plants, such as caffeine, marijuana, opium, etc.
There are a wide variety of plant species which provide us with biologically active substances, some of which are mind numbing whereas others are life changing. Herbal remedies extracted from plants give much better therapeutic results as compared to chemically produced drugs. Almost about 80% of all cardiovascular medicines and antibiotics as well as drugs for cancer treatment use plant sources as one of the main ingredients. Chemicals derived from plants have proved their effectiveness over man-made chemicals for many years and are hence, a safer and healthier approach when compared. Polysaccharides derived from plant, flavonoids, opiates such as morphine provide us with a wide range of bioactive compounds.
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The complex carbonhydrates are….
Answer:
Complex carbohydrates are made up of sugar molecules that are strung together in long, complex chains. Complex carbohydrates are found in foods such as peas, beans, whole grains, and vegetables. Both simple and complex carbohydrates are turned to glucose (blood sugar) in the body and are used as energy.
A woman birth her infant 24 hours ago by cesarean. Which assessment findings should be reported to the assigned nurse
The assessment findings that should be reported to the assigned nurse are:
Uterus feels boggyThe client reports breakthrough pain level of 7-8The client may face a variety of discomforts and issues following a caesarean section delivery. The fundal height is normal in this case, the volume of blood is normal, and minor abdominal distention with hypoactive bowel sound is predicted. The swampy uterus and elevated pain level are significant observations that should be mentioned to the RN. A swollen uterus might cause bleeding, and pain levels of 7-8 must be treated with prescribed opiates.
Caesarean section, often known as C-section or caesarean birth, is a surgical technique in which one or more infants are born through an incision in the mother's belly, which is frequently used because vaginal delivery might endanger the baby or mother.
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A 23-year-old primigravida is at her first prenatal appointment today. Ultrasound indicates that she is at 9 weeks' gestation. She asks when she can first expect to feel her baby move. What is the best response by the nurse
The best response by the nurse to a 23-year-old primigravida is "Many women are able to first feel light movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
The first prenatal appointment generally takes place in the alternate month, between week 6 and week 8 of gestation. Be sure to call as soon as you suspect you are pregnant and have taken a gestation test. Some interpreters will be suitable to fit you in right down, but others may have delays of several weeks( or longer).
Ultrasound, also called sonography or individual medical sonography, is an imaging system that uses sound swells to produce images of structures within your body. The images can give precious information for diagnosing and directing treatment for a variety of conditions and conditions.
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Which of the following would be most effective in implementing the findings of a new clinical treatment for problems associated with bowel motility for the staff nurses
Effective implementation would involve staff education and ongoing support, as well as clear communication and guidelines.
Staff education: Nurses should be provided with comprehensive education on the new treatment, including how it works, how to administer it, and any potential side effects.
Ongoing support: Nurses should have access to ongoing support and guidance as they begin to use the new treatment in practice.
Clear communication and guidelines: The new treatment should be clearly communicated and guidelines should be established for the nurses to follow.
Encourage feedback: Nurses should be encouraged to provide feedback on their experiences with the new treatment and share any challenges or successes they encounter.
Regular monitoring and evaluation: Regular monitoring and evaluation of the treatment should be done to ensure that it is safe and effective for patients.
It is important to keep in mind that the implementation of new treatments may require a cultural change within the organization, so it's important to involve all stakeholders, including nurses, physicians, and administrators, in the implementation process. Clear communication and ongoing support will be crucial to the success of the implementation and the adoption of the new treatment by the staff nurses.
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you are called to the home of a female patient in cardiac arrest. as you walk into the scene, you discover the first responders have just performed a combination of cpr and use of an aed amd she has remained a pulse; however, she remains unconscious and is not breathing. her husband arrives and hands you what appears to be a valid do not resuscitate order and asks that you discontinue your efforts to save her. what should you do next
You should immediately stop all resuscitation efforts and contact the patient's physician to confirm the validity of the DNR order. If the order is valid, you should follow the instructions on the order and provide comfort care to the patient and her family.