You know that the current exchange rate for us dollars (usd) to indian rupees (inr) is 1:45.85, that the exchange rate for indian rupees to bangladeshi taka (bdt) is 1:1.507, and that the exchange rate for bangladeshi taka to myanma kyat (mmk) at a rate of 1:0.0928. which of the following equations is set up properly to calculate the exchange rate from us dollars to myanma kyat? a. (1 u s d) times startfraction (1 u s d) over (45.85 i n r) endfraction times startfraction (1 i n r) over (1.507 b d t) endfraction times startfraction (1 b d t) over (0.0928 m m k) endfraction = (x m m k). b. (1 u s d) times startfraction (45.85 i n r) over (1 u s d) endfraction times startfraction (1.507 b d t) over (45.85 i n r) endfraction times startfraction (0.0928 m m k) over (1.507 b d t) endfraction = (x m m k). c. (1 u s d) times startfraction (45.85 i n r) over (1 u s d) endfraction times startfraction (1.507 b d t) over (1 i n r) endfraction times startfraction (0.0928 m m k) over (1 b d t) endfraction = (x m m k). d. (1 u s d) times startfraction (1 u s d) over (45.85 i n r) endfraction times startfraction (45.85 i n r) over (1.507 b d t) endfraction times startfraction (1.507 b d t) over (0.0928 m m k) endfraction = (x m m k).

Answer:

D & B

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)=(x-2)^{2} -3[/tex]

The vertex: (2, -3)

[tex]f(2)=(2-2)^{2} -3=0-3=-3[/tex]

Hope this helps

Answer:

1) D. f(x) = (x - 2)² - 3

2) B. (2, -3)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps!

Answer:

1

+t

3

+t

5

=39

t

2

+t

4

+t

6

=51

To find:

t

10

=?

Solution:

Let a be the first term and d be the common difference.

t

1

+t

3

+t

5

=39

or, a+a+2d+a+4d=39

or, 3a+6d=39

or, a+2d=13 .............(i)

t

2

+t

4

+t

6

=51

or, a+d+a+3d+a+5d=51

or, 3a+9d=51

or, a+3d=17

Subtracting eqn. from eqn. we get,

d=4

Putting value d=4 in eqn.(i) we get,

a+2×4=13

or, a=13−8

or, a=5

Now, t

10

=a+9d

t

10

=5+9×4

t

10

=5+36

t

10

=41

Answer:

c) 32°

Step-by-step explanation:

The bisector of an angle is the line or line segment that divides the angle into two equal parts.  So Ray HJ divides ∠GHI into 2 equal parts.

Therefore, ∠GHJ = ∠IHJ

As we are told that ∠IHJ = 32° then ∠GHJ = 32°

Answer:

supplementary

Consecutive angles are supplementary (A + D = 180°). If one angle is right, then all angles are right. The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. Each diagonal of a parallelogram separates it into two congruent triangles.

Answer:

Supplementary

Step-by-step explanation:

The consecutive angles of a parallelogram are supplementary.

Two angles that add up to 180° are called supplementary angles.

This can be proven by creating a parallelogram and extending all segments to create two parallel lines transversing another set of two parallel lines.

I drew a diagram of this shape and considering that all the opposite lines are parallel, the central shape is a parallelogram.

Looking at the diagram attached, we know that the angle of a straight line is 180° (represented by the yellow of Angle 1 and the pink angle next to it) All angles of the same color are congruent by angle theorems consisting of corresponding and vertical angles.

If pink is x, and yellow is y, then we can say that x + y = 180°

So, therefore we can say that the consecutive angles of the parallelogram (Angle 1 and Angle 2) sum up to 180°, because they are made up of one pink angle and one yellow angle ( x and y )

Answer:

15 and 45

Step-by-step explanation:

Let 1st number be x.

Then, 2nd number = 3x.

According to que,

3x+15=2(x+15)

3x+15=2x+30

x=15

Therefore, the two numbers are 15 and 45.

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

if you see 26-24=2

=>27-x=2

=>-x=2-27

=>-x=-25

=>x=25

Answer:

After investing for 10 years at 5% interest, your $2,000 investment will have grown to $3,258

Step-by-step explanation:

Your welcome

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let function p(x) be the price that is reduced by 15% if the bill is x dollars.

Since the price is not payed in full 100% is reduced by 15% we only pay

100 - 15 = 85 % of the original price.

p(x) = x· (100% - 15 %)  = x· 85% = 0.85 x

The function used to calculate any bill that is reduced by 15% is:

p(x) = 0.85x

x - is the bill before being reduced by the coupon

Answer:

72

Step-by-step explanation:

If 5 is 36 muilplte by 2 to get ten and 72

Answer:

138.82

Step-by-step explanation:

Line up the numbers on the right - do not line the decimal points.

Start on the right, multiply each digit in the top number by each digit in the bottom number, just as with whole numbers.

then you add the products.

Answer:

138.82

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the numbers using the normal multiplication process. Now, count the number of digits after the decimal point in both the numbers. Add these 2 values & put the decimal point in the product by counting the digits from the left side of the place value. The answer is 138.82.

=》 Check the attachment for the steps.

_____________

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

10.4476119402

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want a reasonable answer it would be 10.44 or 10.4!

Step-by-step explanation:

all coefficients are integers, the rational zeros theorem can be applied.

that means each rational solution ("root") x = p/q, written in most simplified terms so that p and q are relatively prime, can be found for the polynomial

an×x^n + an-1×x^(n-1) + ... + a1×x + a0

p is an ± integer factor of the constant term a0, and

q is an ± integer factor of the leading coefficient an.

in our case here

an = a4 = 1

a0 = 8

the only factor for 1 is ±1.

the factors for 8 are

±1, ±2, ±4, ±8

so, we get

1/1, 2/1, 4/1, 8/1, -1/1, -2/1, -4/1, -8/1, 1/-1, 2/-1, 4/-1, 8/-1, -1/-1, -2/-1, -4/-1, -8/-1

that leaves us with the different values of

1/1, 2/1, 4/1, 8/1, -1/1, -2/1, -4/1, -8/1

sorted from smallest to largest

-8/1, -4/1, -2/1, -1/1, 1/1, 2/1, 4/1, 8/1

or simply

-8, -4, -2, -1, 1, 2, 4, 8

Answer:

The area is 3 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 3 ft because if you do ¾×4 because of the four sides you will get 12/4 and that equals 3

The true solution x for the logarithmic equation which is shown below will be 75.

[tex]2 \ln e^{\ln 2x} - \ln e ^{\ln 10} = \ln 30[/tex]

Logarithms are another way of writing exponent. A logarithm with a number base is equal to the other number. It is just the opposite of the exponent function.

The logarithmic equation is given below.

[tex]2 \ln e^{\ln 2x} - \ln e ^{\ln 10} = \ln 30[/tex]

We know that the properties of the logarithm

[tex]e ^{\ln x} = x\\\\a \ln b = \ln b^a\\\\\ln a - \ln b = \ln (\dfrac{a}{b})[/tex]

Then we have

[tex]\begin{aligned} 2 \ln 2x - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln (2x)^2 - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln 4x^2 - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln \dfrac{4x^2 }{10x} &= \ln 30\\\\\ln \dfrac{2x}{5} &= \ln 30 \end{aligned}[/tex]

Taking anti-log, then we have

[tex]\rm \dfrac{2x}{5} = 30\\\\2x \ = 150\\\\x \ \ = 75[/tex]

More about the logarithm link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/7302008

Answer:

x = 75 or b

Step-by-step explanation:

Trust me

Answer:

343

Step-by-step explanation:

Finding? How many people with a library card should he expect in the population?

Important? Population = 700. Sample 1= 53%. Sample 2 = 51%. Sample 3 = 43%.

How? Average the 3 samples percentages together. The percent sign tells us what the sample size is (% = out of 100). Set up the proportions for library card to sample size and then library card to population. Cross multiply.

h-hey baddie! UwU! The answer is 24. Hope this helps onichan!-

Answer:The  median of the distribution is (first option)

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The values on the given table are presented as follows;

Value of spin: 0,1,2,5,10

Probability: 0.4,0.2,0.2,0.1,0.1

To find the median, we calculate the cumulative probabilities to find the value of the spin art which the cumulative probability is 0.5 as follows;

Cumulative probability, starting from the left, is therefore;

Probability for spin of 0, 0.4 + Probability for spin of 1, 0.2 = 0.6
Therefore, given that the probability of 0.5 occurs within the Value of Spin 1, the median of the probability distribution is 1

The solution is : The  median of the distribution is (first option) 1

In statistics and probability theory, the median is the value separating the higher half from the lower half of a data sample, a population, or a probability distribution. For a data set, it may be thought of as "the middle" value.

here, we have,

The values on the given table are presented as follows;

Value of spin: 0,1,2,5,10

Probability: 0.4,0.2,0.2,0.1,0.1

To find the median, we calculate the cumulative probabilities to find the value of the spin art which the cumulative probability is 0.5 as follows;

Cumulative probability, starting from the left, is therefore;

Probability for spin of 0, 0.4 + Probability for spin of 1, 0.2 = 0.6

Therefore, given that the probability of 0.5 occurs within the Value of Spin 1,

the median of the probability distribution is 1.

Hence, The solution is : The  median of the distribution is (first option) 1

To learn more on median click:

brainly.com/question/20425811

#SPJ7

An equation is formed of two equal expressions. There is no solution set of the equation 3x+13 = 3(x+6)+1.

An equation is formed when two equal expressions are equated together with the help of an equal sign '='.

The equation can be solved in the following manner,

[tex]3x+13 = 3(x+6)+1\\3x+13=3x+18+1\\3x+13=3x+19[/tex]

Since both the sides of the equation are the same in terms of variable and the constant terms are not the same. Therefore, there is no solution set of the equation 3x+13 = 3(x+6)+1.

Learn more about Equation:

https://brainly.com/question/2263981

Answer: ZERO

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that to find unit price, we divide the unit in the numerator by the quantity in the denominator.

For the first option, we must put $1.49 as the numerator and 8 as the denominator. It will then look like this:

For our second option, we must put $2.29 as the numerator, and 12 as the denominator. It will look like this:

For our third option, we must put $2.75 as the numerator, and 15 as the denominator. It will look like this:

For our final option, we must put $3.89 as the numerator, and 20 as the denominator. It will look like this:

Therefore, the last option is the best buy because $0.18625 > $0.18333.

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

3(-2)^2+(-2)−2=8

The area of the triangle is equal to 12 mm².

The area of a triangle is given by the formula:[tex]A=\frac{bh}{2}[/tex], where:

 b= length of the base;

  h=height

From the figure, it is possible to see that h= base of rectangle - 4 mm. Then, the height of the triangle(h)= 10-4=6 mm.

You can see that the sum of the base of the triangle with the height of the rectangle is equal to 12 mm. The figure also shows that the height of this rectangle is equal to 8 mm. Thus, the  base of the triangle(h)= 12-8=4 mm.

STEP 2 - Find the area of the triangle.

From step 1:

    b= length of the base= 4

    h=height=6

Therefore, the area of the triangle - [tex]A=\frac{bh}{2}=\frac{4 * 6}{2}=\frac{24}{2} =12 mm^2[/tex].

Learn more about the area of compound shapes here:

brainly.com/question/15884960

Answer:

m∠WVZ=90°

m∠XVW=90°

Step-by-step explanation:

m∠WVY=m∠WVZ+m∠ZVY

180°=9x-15°+90°

180°=9x+75°

180-75=9x

105°=9x

⇒x =    [tex]\frac{35}{3}[/tex]

So. m∠WVZ is

[tex]=9(\frac{35}{3})-15=3\times35-15\\=105-15=90[/tex]

m∠WVZ=90°

and same will be the m∠XVW

m∠XVZ=m∠XVW+m∠WVZ

180°=m∠XVW+90°

m∠XVW=180°-90°

m∠XVW=90°

Step-by-step explanation:

The way to find sidewalk area :")

Answer:

Exact - 40n m²

Approximate 125.6m²

Step-by-step explanation:

Exact area of the sidewalk - n * (11 m)² - n * (9 m)²

- n * 121 m²- n * 81 m²

Exact area of the sidewalk - 40n m²

To find the approximate area of side walk let us substitute pi equals 3.14.

40*3.14 m²

Approximate area of the side walk - 125.6 m²

Therefore the exact area is 40n m² , the approximate area is 125.6 m²

Answer:

Option c

(3,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving system of equations:

y = -x + 4  ----------(I)

y = x - 2 -----------(II)

Add equation (I) & (II). So, x will be eliminated and we can find the value of y.

      (I)       y = -x + 4

     (II)       y = x -  2   {Now add}

               2y = 2

Divide both sides by 2

                y = 2/2

y =1

Substitute y = 1 in any of the equations. Here, we are substituting in equation  (II)

1 = x - 2

1 + 2 = x

x = 3

Using proportions, it is found that you would expect to get a sum of 3 22 times.

A proportion is a fraction of a total amount, and the measures are related using a rule of three.

When two dice are rolled, there are 36 total outcomes. 2 of them, (1,2) and (2,1), result in a sum of 3, hence the proportion is given by:

p = 2/36 = 1/18.

Out of 396 tosses, the expected value is given by:

E = 1/18 x 396 = 22.

More can be learned about proportions at https://brainly.com/question/24372153

#SPJ1

Answer:

Side Lengths of 4,6, & 7

Side Lengths of 8,9, &4

Step-by-step explanation:

Base on the given we first must know that in order to create a triangle the following must be apply:

[1] All 3 vector have different direction

[2] sum of sizes of 2 vector must be greater than 3rd one.

Thus,

Side Lengths of 4,6, & 7

4 + 7 > 7

10 > 7

Side Lengths of 2,10,&3

2 + 3 > 10

5 <10

Side Lengths of 15, 7 , &8

7+8=15

15 = 15

Side Lengths of 1,4,&3

1+3>4

4=4

Side Lengths of 8,9,&4

8+4>9

12>9

Side Lengths of 6,7,&1

1+6=7

7=7

Hence, we can see that the only ones that are

[1] All 3 vector have different direction

[2] sum of sizes of 2 vector must be greater than 3rd one.

is

Side Lengths of 4,6, & 7

Side Lengths of 8,9, &4

[RevyBreeze]

Answer:18

Step-by-step explanation: eight equals 24 hours so 75 hours equals 18

Answer:

75% of 3 days is 54 hours. 3 days is 72 hours, 72=100%, x = 75%, 72/x = 100%/75% x/72 = 75/100, x = 54.

Step-by-step explanation: