What is the difference between sigmoidal drug release and pulsatile drug release? I know they both have a general lag time, but what is the benefit of releasing a little bit of drug during that lag time (sigmoidal release)?

Answers

Answer 1

Sigmoidal drug release is a sustained release system with a gradual increase in the rate of drug release as time progresses. Pulsatile drug delivery is a system that delivers the drug in a predetermined burst at certain time intervals. The difference between the two types of drug release systems is the rate of drug release and how it is released.Both sigmoidal and pulsatile drug release systems have a lag time during which no drug is released.

The difference between the two is the reason why they release a little drug during this time. During the lag time of sigmoidal drug release, a small amount of the drug is slowly released. This ensures that a minimum concentration of the drug is maintained during this period, ensuring that the therapeutic window is maintained, but not too high, thereby reducing side effects.Sigmoidal drug release has a number of benefits.

It has improved patient compliance by lowering the number of times the medication must be taken. It reduces fluctuations in the blood concentration of the drug, minimizing side effects while increasing efficacy. It also enables the drug to be absorbed more slowly and steadily, which is ideal for drugs that are slowly excreted from the body.

Pulsatile drug delivery, on the other hand, has a rapid onset of action. It is ideal for drugs that have an immediate effect or are active only at specific times. Furthermore, it can increase the bioavailability of certain drugs by ensuring that they are delivered to the site of action at the optimal time.

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Related Questions

p, q, r, s, t, u, v be the following propositions.
p: Miggy’s car is a Ferrari.
q: Miggy’s car is a Ford.
r: Miggy’s car is red.
s: Miggy’s car is yellow.
t: Miggy’s car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer. u: Miggy’s car requires repairs monthly.
v: Miggy gets speeding tickets frequently.
Translate the following symbolic statements into words.
1) p Ʌ (t → u)
2) (~ p V ~ q) → (v Ʌ u)
3) (r → p) V (s →q)
4) (t Ʌ u) ↔ (p V q)
5) (~p → ~v) Ʌ t

Answers

The given symbolic statements can be translated as follows:

Miggy's car is a Ferrari and if it has over ten thousand miles on its odometer, then it requires repairs monthly.

If Miggy's car is not a Ferrari or it is not a Ford, then Miggy gets speeding tickets frequently and it requires repairs monthly.

Either Miggy's car is red and it is a Ferrari, or it is yellow and it is a Ford.

Miggy's car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer and requires repairs monthly if and only if it is either a Ferrari or a Ford.

If Miggy's car is not a Ferrari, then Miggy does not get speeding tickets and it has over ten thousand miles on its odometer.

Symbolic statements in mathematics are mathematical expressions or equations that use symbols and logical operators to represent relationships, properties, or assertions. These statements can be true or false, and they are commonly used in mathematical logic and proofs.

1) p Ʌ (t → u): In this statement, the proposition p represents the statement "Miggy's car is a Ferrari," and the proposition t represents the statement "Miggy's car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer." The proposition u represents the statement "Miggy's car requires repairs monthly."
The conjunction symbol Ʌ is used to represent the word "and," indicating that both propositions p and (t → u) must be true.
The conditional statement t → u can be understood as "if t is true (Miggy's car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer), then u is true (Miggy's car requires repairs monthly)."
Therefore, the overall statement p Ʌ (t → u) can be interpreted as "Miggy's car is a Ferrari and if it has over ten thousand miles on its odometer, then it requires repairs monthly."

2) (~ p V ~ q) → (v Ʌ u): In this statement, the negation symbol ~ is used to represent the word "not." Therefore, ~ p represents the statement "Miggy's car is not a Ferrari," and ~ q represents the statement "Miggy's car is not a Ford."
The disjunction symbol V is used to represent the word "or," indicating that either ~ p or ~ q must be true.
The conditional statement (~ p V ~ q) → (v Ʌ u) can be understood as "if (~ p V ~ q) is true (Miggy's car is not a Ferrari or it is not a Ford), then (v Ʌ u) is true (Miggy gets speeding tickets frequently and it requires repairs monthly)."
Therefore, the overall statement (~ p V ~ q) → (v Ʌ u) can be interpreted as "If Miggy's car is not a Ferrari or it is not a Ford, then Miggy gets speeding tickets frequently and it requires repairs monthly."

3) (r → p) V (s → q): In this statement, the conditional statements (r → p) and (s → q) represent the relationships between the color of Miggy's car and the type of car it is.
The conditional statement r → p can be understood as "if r is true (Miggy's car is red), then p is true (Miggy's car is a Ferrari)."
The conditional statement s → q can be understood as "if s is true (Miggy's car is yellow), then q is true (Miggy's car is a Ford)."
The disjunction symbol V is used to represent the word "or," indicating that either (r → p) or (s → q) must be true.
Therefore, the overall statement (r → p) V (s → q) can be interpreted as "If Miggy's car is red, then it is a Ferrari or if Miggy's car is yellow, then it is a Ford."

4) (t Ʌ u) ↔ (p V q): In this statement, the conjunction symbol Ʌ is used to represent the word "and," indicating that both propositions t and u must be true.
The disjunction symbol V is used to represent the word "or," indicating that either p or q must be true.
The biconditional symbol ↔ is used to represent the phrase "if and only if," indicating that both sides of the statement must be true or both sides must be false.
Therefore, the overall statement (t Ʌ u) ↔ (p V q) can be interpreted as "Miggy's car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer and requires repairs monthly if and only if it is a Ferrari or a Ford."

5) (~p → ~v) Ʌ t: In this statement, the negation symbol ~ is used to represent the word "not." Therefore, ~ p represents the statement "Miggy's car is not a Ferrari."
The conditional statement ~p → ~v can be understood as "if ~p is true (Miggy's car is not a Ferrari), then ~v is true (Miggy does not get speeding tickets frequently)."
The conjunction symbol Ʌ is used to represent the word "and," indicating that both propositions (~p → ~v) and t must be true.
Therefore, the overall statement (~p → ~v) Ʌ t can be interpreted as "If Miggy's car is not a Ferrari, then Miggy does not get speeding tickets frequently, and Miggy's car has over ten thousand miles on its odometer."
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Calvin wants to save at least $1500 to take his family on vacation. He already
has $75 saved. He plans to save an additional $40 each week. What is the
minimum number of weeks Calvin will need to save to have at least $1500?
Write and solve an inequality.

Answers

Calvin will need a minimum of 36 weeks to save at least $1500.

Let's assume the minimum number of weeks Calvin needs to save to have at least $1500 is represented by the variable w.

Each week, Calvin saves an additional $40.

So after w weeks, he would have saved a total of $40w.

Adding the initial $75 that he already has, we can set up the following inequality:

$40w + $75 ≥ $1500

Simplifying the inequality, we have:

$40w ≥ $1500 - $75

$40w ≥ $1425

Now, to find the minimum number of weeks, we divide both sides of the inequality by $40:

w ≥ $1425 / $40

w ≥ 35.625

Since we cannot have a fraction of a week, we round up to the nearest whole number.

Therefore, the minimum number of weeks Calvin will need to save to have at least $1500 is 36 weeks.

In summary, the inequality w ≥ 35.625 is solved to determine that Calvin will need a minimum of 36 weeks to save at least $1500.

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The curve shows the total project costs of all possible project durations, answer the following questions:
What is the least cost duration?
What is the least duration cost?
What is the all crashed duration?

Answers

The curve that shows the total project costs of all possible project durations can help us determine the optimal duration for the project. Let's answer the questions one by one:

1. What is the least cost duration?
The least cost duration is the point on the curve where the cost is minimized. This means finding the lowest point on the curve. By locating the lowest point, we can identify the duration that results in the least cost.

2. What is the least duration cost?
The least duration cost refers to the point on the curve where the duration is minimized. This means finding the shortest duration on the curve. By locating this point, we can determine the cost associated with the shortest duration.

3. What is the all crashed duration?
The all crashed duration refers to the minimum possible duration of the project. In project management, crashing refers to the process of shortening the project duration by assigning additional resources to critical tasks. The all crashed duration is the minimum duration achievable by allocating maximum resources to all critical tasks. It represents the shortest possible time to complete the project.

It's important to note that the specific values for the least cost duration, the least duration cost, and the all crashed duration will vary depending on the details of the project and the specific curve representing the costs and durations.

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Describe the principles of differential pulse
voltammetry.

Answers

Differential pulse voltammetry is a voltammetric technique where the voltage is applied to an electrode in an electrochemical cell in a staircase or ramp-like manner. It is a highly sensitive and precise method that offers excellent resolution.

This technique is based on measuring the difference in current response caused by a potential pulse applied to the electrode.

The principles of differential pulse voltammetry are as follows:

1. Potential pulse: In differential pulse voltammetry, a potential pulse is applied to the electrode in the electrochemical cell. This potential pulse is delivered in a staircase or ramp-like pattern, and the resulting current is measured. The potential pulse can be positive or negative in direction.

2. Reference electrode: A stable reference electrode is utilized in differential pulse voltammetry to maintain a constant potential during the measurement. Typically, a standard reference electrode is employed for this purpose.

3. Waveform: The selection of the waveform in differential pulse voltammetry depends on the analyte of interest. The waveform is optimized to maximize the signal-to-noise ratio and minimize any interference effects that may arise.

4. Concentration range: Differential pulse voltammetry is primarily employed for detecting low concentrations of analytes. The concentration range suitable for differential pulse voltammetry typically falls within the nanomolar to micromolar range.

5. Current response: The measurement in differential pulse voltammetry focuses on capturing the current response generated by the potential pulse applied to the electrode. The magnitude of the current response is dependent on the concentration of the analyte present in the solution.

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The points A(–5, 5) and B(–5, –7) are plotted on the coordinate plane. Line segment A B plotted on a coordinate plane with point A at negative 5 comma 5 and point B at negative 5 comma negative 7. On paper, make a rectangle that has points A and B as two of its vertices and has a perimeter of 40 units. Draw and label the two other vertices as points C and D on the coordinate plane. Draw line segments to show the rectangle. Select the coordinates for points C and D. (–5, 5) (3, 5) (11, 5) (3, –7) (11, 7) (11, –7)

Answers

The coordinates for points are (-5, 19),(-5, -21).The correct answer among the given options are C and F.

To find the coordinates for points C and D of the rectangle with vertices A(-5, 5) and B(-5, -7), we need to consider the perimeter of the rectangle.

The length of the rectangle is the vertical distance between points A and B, which is given by |5 - (-7)| = 12 units.

The remaining perimeter, after subtracting the length, is 40 - 12 = 28 units.

Since points A and B share the same x-coordinate (-5), the rectangle must be parallel to the y-axis. Therefore, the coordinates of points C and D will have the same x-coordinate as A and B.

To distribute the remaining perimeter evenly, each side of the rectangle must have a length of 14 units. Since point A is located at (x, y) = (-5, 5), adding 14 units vertically gives us point C at (x, y) = (-5, 5 + 14) = (-5, 19).

To find point D, we subtract 14 units vertically from point B, which gives us (x, y) = (-5, -7 - 14) = (-5, -21).

Thus, the coordinates for points C and D are:

C. (-5, 19)

F. (-5, -21)

Please note that the remaining answer options (B, C, D, E) are not valid for the coordinates of points C and D in this particular scenario.

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The probable question may be:

The points A(–5, 5) and B(–5, –7) are plotted on the coordinate plane.

Graph where both the axes run from minus six to plus six and beyond. Straight line AB intersect the x- axis at (-5, 0). The coordinates are A(-5, 5) and B(-5, -7)

On paper, make a rectangle that has points A and B as two of its vertices and has a perimeter of 40 units. Draw and label the two other vertices as points C and D on the coordinate plane. Draw line segments to show the rectangle.

What are the coordinates for points C and D? Select all that apply.

A. (–5, 5)

B. (3, 5)

C. (11, 5)

D. (3, –7)

E. (11, 7)

F. (11, –7)

a) Critically discuss the two main factors affecting the
properties of structural steel.
b) Appraise how the behavior of the steel is affected by
extremes of temperature.

Answers

The two main factors affecting the properties of structural steel are: Carbon Content and Alloying Elements.

The behavior of steel can be significantly affected by extremes of temperature.

a) Critically discuss the two main factors affecting the properties of structural steel.

The two main factors affecting the properties of structural steel are:

Carbon Content: The carbon content of steel determines the hardness and strength of the steel. A higher carbon content will increase the hardness and strength of the steel, making it more durable and suitable for construction purposes. However, too much carbon content can make the steel brittle and more prone to cracking or breaking. Therefore, the carbon content must be carefully balanced to achieve optimal strength and durability.

Alloying Elements: The properties of steel can be significantly affected by the addition of alloying elements such as manganese, silicon, and chromium. These elements can improve the corrosion resistance, ductility, and toughness of the steel. The specific alloying elements used will depend on the intended application of the steel.

b) Appraise how the behavior of the steel is affected by extremes of temperature.

The behavior of steel can be significantly affected by extremes of temperature. At high temperatures, steel will undergo thermal expansion and become weaker, while at low temperatures, steel will become more brittle and prone to cracking. The specific temperature range at which these changes occur will depend on the composition of the steel and the specific application it is being used for. In general, structural steel is designed to maintain its strength and stability within a certain temperature range. In situations where extreme temperature fluctuations are expected, special precautions may need to be taken to ensure the safety and stability of the structure.

For example, fire-resistant coatings may be applied to steel beams to protect them from the effects of high temperatures.

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Which equation represents an exponential function that passes through the point (2, 36)?

A. f(x) = 4(3)x
B. f(x) = 4(x)3
C. f(x) = 6(3)x
D. f(x) = 6(x)3

Answers

Answer:

The correct equation is A.

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine which equation represents an exponential function that passes through the point (2, 36), we can substitute the x-value (2) and y-value (36) into each equation and see which equation satisfies the given point.

Let's evaluate each equation:

A. f(x) = 4(3)^ x

Substituting x = 2: f(2) = 4(3)^2 = 4(9) = 36

B. f(x) = 4(x)^3

Substituting x = 2: f(2) = 4(2)^3 = 4(8) = 32

C. f(x) = 6(3)^ x

Substituting x = 2: f(2) = 6(3)^2 = 6(9) = 54

D. f(x) = 6(x)^3

Substituting x = 2: f(2) = 6(2)^3 = 6(8) = 48

Only option A, f(x) = 4(3)^ x, satisfies the condition, as it yields f(2) = 36. Therefore, the correct equation is A.

Which country is found at 30 N latitude and 0 longitude?
Argentina Brazil Algeria Egypt Which country is found at 30 N latitude and 90 W longitude?
Argentina United States
Iran Russia

Answers

The country found at 30°N latitude and 0° longitude is Algeria, while the country found at 30°N latitude and 90°W longitude is the United States. Geographic coordinates are used to precisely locate points on Earth's surface and are essential for navigation and identifying specific locations around the world.

To determine the country at a specific latitude and longitude, we can refer to a world map or use geographic coordinates.

For 30°N latitude and 0° longitude:

By locating 30°N latitude and 0° longitude on a world map or using a geographical database, we find that Algeria is situated at these coordinates.

For 30°N latitude and 90°W longitude:

By locating 30°N latitude and 90°W longitude on a world map or using a geographical database, we find that the United States is situated at these coordinates.

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Q3 Identify which of the following differential
equations:
produces the following direction field.
Justify your answer analytically.

Answers

The direction field produced by the differential equationy' = (y - 1)(y + 2)matches the given direction field y' = (y - 1)(y + 2).

The given differential equation produces the following direction field.  The differential equation that produces the given direction field is y' = (y - 1)(y + 2)

To show this analytically, we can consider the slope of the direction field at various points. At points where y = 1, y' is negative, and at points where y < 1, y' is negative.

Similarly, at points where y = -2, y' is positive, and at points where y > -2, y' is positive.

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1. As a professional engineer, ethical conflicts are frequently encountered. Under such circumstances, how would you react?

Answers

When faced with ethical conflicts as an engineer, reflect on the situation, consult guidelines, seek advice, consider legal obligations, explore alternatives, engage in dialogue, document decisions, and seek professional support if needed.

Reflect on the situation:

Take the time to fully understand the ethical conflict at hand and consider its implications on various stakeholders, including public safety, the environment, and professional integrity.

Consult ethical guidelines:

Refer to professional codes of ethics and guidelines established by engineering organizations. These documents often provide principles and standards to help engineers navigate ethical dilemmas.

Seek advice and guidance:

Discuss the situation with trusted colleagues, mentors, or supervisors who can provide insight and advice based on their experience and knowledge. This external perspective can help you evaluate different options.

Consider legal obligations:

Understand the legal framework relevant to your profession and ensure compliance with applicable laws and regulations. This may influence the available choices and potential consequences.

Explore alternative solutions:

Look for creative solutions that uphold ethical values and address the conflict. Consider the potential impact of each option on different stakeholders and evaluate the feasibility and consequences of each approach.

Engage in open dialogue:

Communicate openly and honestly with all parties involved in the conflict. Engaging in constructive discussions can help find common ground and identify potential compromises.

Document your decision-making process:

Maintain a record of the steps you took to address the ethical conflict, including the considerations, discussions, and decisions made. This documentation can be valuable if questions arise later.

Seek professional support:

If the conflict seems complex or significant, consider consulting with ethics committees, legal advisors, or other relevant professionals who can provide specialized guidance.

Remember, ethical conflicts can be challenging, and there may not always be a straightforward solution. It's essential to approach such situations with integrity, careful consideration, and a commitment to upholding the highest ethical standards of the engineering profession.

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A rectangular beam has dimension of 300mm width and an effective depth of 500mm. It is subjected to shear dead load of 94kN and shear live load of 100kN. Use f'c = 27.6 MPa and fyt = 276MPa for 12mm diameter of U-stirrup. Design the required spacing of the shear reinforcement.

Answers

The required spacing of the shear reinforcement for the given rectangular beam is approximately 184.03 mm.

To design the required spacing of the shear reinforcement for the given rectangular beam, we need to calculate the shear force and then determine the spacing of the shear reinforcement, considering the given materials and loads. Here's the step-by-step process:

Given:

Beam width (b): 300 mm

Effective depth (d): 500 mm

Shear dead load (Vd): 94 kN

Shear live load (Vl): 100 kN

Concrete compressive strength (f'c): 27.6 MPa

Steel yield strength (fyt): 276 MPa

Diameter of U-stirrup (diameter): 12 mm

Step 1: Calculate the total shear force (Vu):

Vu = Vd + Vl

Vu = 94 kN + 100 kN

Vu = 194 kN

Step 2: Calculate the shear capacity (Vc):

Vc = 0.17 √(f'c) b d

Vc = 0.17 √(27.6) 300 500

Vc = 340.20 kN

Step 3: Calculate the design shear force (Vus):

Vus = Vu - Vc

Vus = 194 kN - 340.20 kN

Vus = -146.20 kN

Since Vus is negative, it means the section is under-reinforced, and shear reinforcement is required.

Step 4: Calculate the required area of shear reinforcement (Asv):

Asv = (Vus × 1000) / (0.9 × fyt × spacing)

We assume a spacing for the shear reinforcement and calculate Asv.

Let's assume an initial spacing of 100 mm (0.1 m) between the U-stirrups:

Asv = (-146.20 kN × 1000) / (0.9 × 276 MPa × 0.1 m)

Asv = -529.71 mm²

Since Asv cannot be negative, we need to increase the spacing. Let's try a spacing of 150 mm (0.15 m):

Asv = (-146.20 kN × 1000) / (0.9 × 276 MPa × 0.15 m)

Asv = 353.14 mm²

Now that we have a positive value for Asv, we can proceed with the chosen spacing.

Step 5: Calculate the number of shear reinforcement bars (n):

n = Asv / (π/4 × diameter²)

n = 353.14 mm² / (π/4 × 12 mm²)

n ≈ 7.08

Since the number of shear reinforcement bars must be a whole number, we round up to the nearest whole number, which gives us 8 bars.

Step 6: Calculate the revised spacing:

spacing = Asv / (n × π/4 × diameter²)

spacing = 353.14 mm² / (8 × π/4 × 12 mm²)

spacing ≈ 184.03 mm

Therefore, the required spacing of the shear reinforcement for the given rectangular beam is approximately 184.03 mm.

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Determine the stress in each member of the trusses loaded and supported as shown below using Maxwell's Stress Diagram scale: 1 m=100kn SPAN, L =32.0 m PITCH = one − third

Answers

To understand how to determine the stress in each member of the trusses loaded and supported as shown using Maxwell's Stress Diagram scale.

A truss is a structure that is made up of several beams or rods that are joined together in a triangular pattern to create a stable and rigid structure. Maxwell's stress diagram is a graphical method that is used to determine the stresses in the individual members of a truss.  

The diagram uses a series of lines and polygons to represent the stresses in the various members of the truss.  Given that the span is L = 32.0 m and the pitch is one-third, we can determine the height of the truss using the Pythagorean theorem.

The height of the truss is given by:
h[tex]^2 = (L/3)^2 + (L/2)^2[/tex]
h[tex]^2 = (32/3)^2 + (32[/tex]/2)^2
[tex]h^2 = 2464[/tex]
[tex]h = 49.6 m[/tex]

The load P is applied at joint C and the reactions at joints A and B are vertical. The truss can be divided into two halves by a vertical line passing through joint C. The half of the truss on the left is shown below:

[asy]
size(250);
import truchet;
truss(5,12,9,8);

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The present population of a community is 20,000 with an average water consum ption of 4200 m /day. The existing water treatment plant has design capacity of 6000 m3/day. It is expected that the population will increase to 44,000 during the next 20 years. The no. of years from now when the plant will reach its design capacity (Assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth

Answers

It will take approximately 15.9 years from now for the water treatment plant to reach its design capacity, assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth.

To determine the number of years from now when the water treatment plant will reach its design capacity, we need to consider the population growth rate and the projected population increase over the next 20 years.

Currently, the population of the community is 20,000, and the average water consumption is 4200 m3/day. The existing water treatment plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3/day.

To estimate the future population, we can assume an arithmetic rate of population growth. This means that the population will increase by a constant amount each year. We can calculate the rate by dividing the projected population increase (44,000 - 20,000 = 24,000) by the number of years (20). So the growth rate is 24,000 / 20 = 1200 people per year.

To estimate when the plant will reach its design capacity, we need to consider both population growth and water consumption. The water consumption per person remains constant at 4200 m3/day.

Initially, the water treatment plant has a surplus capacity of 6000 m3/day - 4200 m3/day = 1800 m3/day.

The surplus capacity can accommodate an additional number of people, given that each person consumes 4200 m3/year (4200 m3/day * 365 days/year). So, the surplus capacity can accommodate 1800 m3/day / 4200 m3/year ≈ 0.43 people per day.

To determine the number of years it will take for the plant to reach its design capacity, we divide the remaining population increase (24,000) by the surplus capacity per year (0.43 people/day * 365 days/year):

Years = 24,000 / (0.43 * 365) ≈ 15.9 years.

Therefore, it will take approximately 15.9 years from now for the water treatment plant to reach its design capacity, assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth.

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Help me with this 2 math

Answers

a) The equation for the situation is given as follows: V = 4πr³/3.

b) The solution to the equation is given as follows: [tex]r = \sqrt[3]{\frac{3V}{4\pi}}[/tex]

c) The radius of the sphere is given as follows: r = 15 in.

What is the volume of an sphere?

The volume of an sphere of radius r is given by the multiplication of 4π by the radius cubed and divided by 3, hence the equation is presented as follows:

V = 4πr³/3.

The radius of the sphere is then given as follows:

[tex]r = \sqrt[3]{\frac{3V}{4\pi}}[/tex]

Considering the volume of 4500π in³, the radius of the sphere is obtained as follows:

[tex]r = \sqrt[3]{\frac{3 \times 4500}{4}}[/tex]

r = 15 in.

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DERIVATIONS PROVE THAT THESE ARGUMENTS ARE VALID
((Q\/(S->T)),(T->R),(-P->R) concludion:
((-Q/\S)->P)

Answers

The derivation demonstrates that the argument is valid.

To prove the validity of the argument, we'll employ a derivation using logical rules and inference steps:

1. Assume the premise: (Q ∨ (S → T))

2. Assume the premise: (T → R)

3. Assume the premise: (-P → R)

4. Assume the negation of the conclusion: ¬((-Q ∧ S) → P)

5. Apply the definition of implication to the negation in step 4: ((-Q ∧ S) ∧ ¬P)

6. Use De Morgan's law to distribute the negation in step 5: ((-Q ∧ S) ∧ (-P))

7. Apply the definition of implication to the premise in step 1: (Q ∨ (¬S ∨ T))

8. Apply the distributive property to step 7: ((Q ∨ ¬S) ∨ T)

9. Apply disjunctive syllogism to steps 2 and 8: (Q ∨ ¬S)

10. Use conjunction elimination on step 6 to obtain (-P)

11. Apply modus ponens to steps 9 and 10: ¬S

12. Use conjunction elimination on step 6 to obtain (-Q)

13. Apply disjunctive syllogism to steps 11 and 7: T

14. Apply modus ponens to steps 3 and 13: R

15. Apply modus ponens to steps 2 and 14: R

16. Apply modus tollens to steps 5 and 15: P

Therefore, we have derived the conclusion (-Q ∧ S) → P, which proves the validity of the argument.

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Which of the following values are solutions to the inequality
2
x
+
4
>
8

Answers

Answer:X=1

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is:

x > 2

Work/explanation:

The inequality is:

[tex]\sf{2x+4 > 8}[/tex]

To solve, start by subtracting 4 from each side:

[tex]\sf{2x > 4}[/tex]

Divide each side by 2

[tex]\sf{x > 2}[/tex]

Therefore, the answer is x > 2.

I need help on this question

A 44 in tall child has a waistline of 23 in.

Which measure best approximates the volume of the child when using a cylinder to approximate the child’s shape. Round your answer to the nearest in^3.

Answers

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To approximate the volume of the child using a cylinder, we can treat the child's body as a cylinder with a height of 44 inches and a waistline (diameter) of 23 inches.

The formula for the volume of a cylinder is V = πr^2h, where r is the radius and h is the height.

To find the radius, we divide the waistline (diameter) by 2: r = 23 / 2 = 11.5 inches.

Now we can calculate the volume using the formula:

V = π(11.5)^2(44)

≈ 5727.16 cubic inches

Rounding to the nearest cubic inch, the best approximation for the volume of the child using a cylinder is 5727 cubic inches.

Step by step explanation, determine the number of unique triangles that can be made from the following information.

Answers

One triangle can be made with the given information.

How many triangles can we make with the given information?

Herewe have the triangle LMN, and we know that:

∠L = 31°

LM = 6.9 cm

MN = 3.4cm

So, we know one angle, one of the sides adjacent to the angle, and the side opposite to the angle.

Below you can see a diagram of the triangle, you can see that the missing length is defined by the information that we know (we could use the cosine law and a system of equations to find it). Then, basically, we can see that the lengths of the 3 sides are fixed.

Only one triangle can be made with 3 fixed sides, so that is the answer.

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Find the solution of the initial value problem y" + 2y + 2y = 0, ² (²) = 0, Y y (7) = 8. y 2 2 y(t) = = How does the solution behave as t→ [infinity]0? Choose one Choose one Decreasing without bounds Increasing without bounds Exponential decay to a constant Oscillating with increasing amplitude Oscillating with decreasing amplitude

Answers

The term -ae^(-t) will tend towards 0.

This implies that y(t) will increase without bounds.

Given equation is y" + 2y' + 2y = 0Taking the characteristic equation and finding its roots:  [tex]m²+2m+2=0 m= (-2±(√2)i)/2[/tex]   Therefore, the solution behaves as "increasing without bounds".

Let's suppose that the roots are α= -1 and β = -1.

From this we can obtain the general solution for the differential equation: [tex]y(t) = c1 e^(αt) + c2 e^(βt)y(t) = c1 e^(-t) + c2 e^(-t)y(t) = (c1 + c2) e^(-t)[/tex]

Now, we will apply the initial condition given:

[tex]y(7) = 8 => (c1 + c2) e^(-7) = 8 => c1 + c2 = 8e^(7) => c1 = 8e^(7) - c2[/tex]

Let c2 = a to simplify the equation.

[tex]c1 = 8e^(7) - a y(t) = (8e^(7) - a) e^(-t) y(t) = 8e^(7) e^(-t) - ae^(-t)[/tex]

When t → ∞,

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Question 14 of 25
Does this table represent a function? Why or why not?
X
2
2
3
4
5
y
1
4
4
2
5
OA. Yes, because there are two x-values that are the same.
B. No, because one x-value corresponds to two different y-values.
OC. No, because two of the y-values are the same.
OD. Yes, because every x-value corresponds to exactly one y-value.
ZA

Answers

The table does not represent a function because one x-value (2) corresponds to two different y-values (1 and 4). Therefore, the correct answer is:

B. No, because one x-value corresponds to two different y-values.

Cori's Meats is looking at a new sausage system with an installed cost of $500,000. This cost will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project's five-year life, at the end of which the sausage system can be scrapped for $74,000. The sausage system will save the firm $180,000 per year in pretax operating costs, and the system requires an initial investment in net working capital of $33,000. If the tax rate is 24 percent and the discount rate is 9 percent, what is the NPV of this project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

Answers

..The value of the NPV of the project is -$142,798.97.

The first step to determine the NPV is to calculate the annual cash inflow from the investment which is the saving in operating costs minus depreciation expense, and the annual cash outflow which includes the initial investment in net working capital.

Substituting the given values in the equation to determine the annual cash flow and using the straight-line method to calculate the depreciation, we get;

Depreciation expense = (500,000 - 74,000)/5 = $85,200

Annual cash inflow = $180,000 - $85,200 = $94,800

Annual cash outflow = -$33,000

Therefore, the annual net cash flow = $94,800 - $33,000 = $61,800

Using the given values of discount rate, tax rate, and the project's life, we can calculate the NPV of the project as follows;

PV factor (9%, 5 years) = 3.889NPV = [($61,800 × 3.889) - $500,000] × (1 - 0.24)

NPV = [$240,007.22 - $500,000] × 0.76

NPV = -$142,798.97

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Determine the energy balance for a turbine by using a closed
volume of fluid as the system while the fluid flows through the
turbine, clearly stating any assumptions made.

Answers

The energy balance equation can be simplified as:Ein = Eout + Wm * h1 = m * h2 + m * (h1 - h2)Thus, the final energy balance equation can be given as:W = (h1 - h2) * m150 words.

In order to determine the energy balance for a turbine using a closed volume of fluid as the system while the fluid flows through the turbine, several assumptions need to be made. The assumptions are as follows: There is no heat transfer, the kinetic energy at the inlet is negligible, and the potential energy changes are also negligible. Given these assumptions, the energy balance equation can be derived as follows:

Energy into the system = Energy out of the system

The energy into the system can be given as: Ein = m * h1, where m is the mass flow rate and h1 is the enthalpy at the inlet. The energy out of the system can be given as: Eout = m * h2 + W, where h2 is the enthalpy at the exit and W is the work done by the turbine.

Substituting the values, the energy balance equation can be written as:m * h1 = m * h2 + WThe work done by the turbine can be calculated as: W = m * (h1 - h2)

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A radiation counter is to be used to determine the radioactivity of a sample using the following procedure: 1. The detector is calibrated; its counting efficiency is found to be 5.09%, with negligible uncertainty. 2. The unknown sample is placed in the detector for 60 seconds; 5943 counts are registered. 3. The sample is removed and the counter is operated for 60 seconds; 298 counts are registered. (a) (2 points) Explain briefly how the counter is calibrated in Step 1. Answer:. (b) (3 points) What is the best estimate of the background count rate (in cps) and its standard uncertainty? (c) (3 points) What is the best estimate of the gross count rate (in cps) and its standard uncertainty? (c) (4 points) What is the best estimate of the sample activity (in Bq) and its standard uncertainty?

Answers

Radioactivity refers to the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nucleus of an unstable atomic nucleus. It occurs in certain types of atoms that have an unstable arrangement of protons and neutrons.

a) In Step 1, the radiation counter is calibrated by determining its counting efficiency. The counting efficiency represents the fraction of radiation emitted by the source that is detected by the counter.

To calibrate the detector, a known radioactive source with known activity is placed in the detector for a specific amount of time, and the number of counts registered by the detector is recorded. This known activity is used to calculate the counting efficiency of the detector.

b) The background count rate refers to the number of counts registered by the detector when no radioactive sample is present. To estimate the background count rate, we can subtract the counts registered by the detector in Step 3 (298 counts) from the counts registered in Step 2 (5943 counts). In this case, the background count rate is 5943 - 298 = 5645 counts. The standard uncertainty can be calculated by taking the square root of the background count rate, which is √5645 ≈ 75.1 counts.

c) The gross count rate represents the total number of counts registered by the detector when the radioactive sample is present. To estimate the gross count rate, we can subtract the background count rate from the counts registered in Step 2. In this case, the gross count rate is 5943 - 5645 = 298 counts. The standard uncertainty remains the same as the background count rate, which is approximately 75.1 counts.

d) The sample activity refers to the rate at which the radioactive sample is emitting radiation. To estimate the sample activity, we can divide the gross count rate by the counting efficiency. In this case, the sample activity is 298 counts / 0.0509 = 5845 cps (counts per second). The standard uncertainty can be calculated using error propagation, taking into account the uncertainties in the gross count rate and counting efficiency.

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Question 4 This question has multiple parts. I Part B: A sample of unknown hydrate, AC-XH₂O, has a mass of 1.000 g before heating and a mass of 0.781 g after heating. If the molar mass of the anhydrous compound (AC) is 195.5 g/mol, what is the water of crystallization for the formula of the unknown hydrate? Type your work for partial credit. Answer choices: 2, 3, 5, or 6. Type "My answer is

Answers

The water of crystallization is approximately 2.

The question is asking for the water of crystallization in the unknown hydrate AC-XH₂O. To find this, we need to calculate the mass of water lost during heating.

1. Calculate the mass of water lost:
  Mass of water lost = Mass before heating - Mass after heating
  Mass of water lost = 1.000 g - 0.781 g
  Mass of water lost = 0.219 g

2. Calculate the number of moles of water lost:
  Moles of water lost = Mass of water lost / Molar mass of water
  Molar mass of water = 18.015 g/mol (the molar mass of water)
  Moles of water lost = 0.219 g / 18.015 g/mol
  Moles of water lost = 0.01214 mol

3. Determine the molar ratio between the anhydrous compound (AC) and water:
  From the formula AC-XH₂O, we can see that for each AC, there is 1 mole of water.
  This means that the molar ratio of AC to water is 1:1.

4. Find the molar mass of AC:
  Given in the question, the molar mass of AC is 195.5 g/mol.

5. Calculate the number of moles of AC:
  Moles of AC = Mass of AC / Molar mass of AC
  Moles of AC = 1.000 g / 195.5 g/mol
  Moles of AC = 0.00511 mol

6. Find the water of crystallization:
  Water of crystallization = Moles of water lost / Moles of AC
  Water of crystallization = 0.01214 mol / 0.00511 mol

  Now, divide the two moles:
  Water of crystallization ≈ 2.378

7. Round the water of crystallization to the nearest whole number:
  The water of crystallization is approximately 2.

So, the answer to the question is "2".

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Banking. Emma's chequing account had a balance of $6,000.00 on January 1st. After reviewing her January bank statement, she noticed there were a NSF for $25.00, a service charge of $15.50, an automatic payment of $37.50 and a note collected for $1,070.00. If there were three deposits in transit - one is $390.00, one is $1,245.00 and one is $710.00, what is the reconciled chequebook balance on January 31st? a. $6,992.00 b. $7,197.00 c. $8,345.00 d. $9,337.00

Answers

The reconciled cheque book balance on January 31st is $7,197.00.

To determine the reconciled cheque book balance on January 31st, we start with the initial balance of $6,000.00. Then, we consider the following transactions:

1. NSF (Non-Sufficient Funds) fee: -$25.00

2. Service charge: -$15.50

3. Automatic payment: -$37.50

4. Note collected: +$1,070.00

Next, we take into account the three deposits in transit:

1. Deposit in transit: +$390.00

2. Deposit in transit: +$1,245.00

3. Deposit in transit: +$710.00

To reconcile the chequebook balance, we add the initial balance to the total of all the credits and subtract the total of all the debits.

Starting with the initial balance of $6,000.00:

$6,000.00 + $1,070.00 + $390.00 + $1,245.00 + $710.00 - $25.00 - $15.50 - $37.50 = $7,197.00

Therefore, the reconciled chequebook balance on January 31st is $7,197.00.

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What is x in this equation 2x -9<1

Answers

Hello!

2x -9 < 1

2x < 1 + 9

2x < 10

x < 10/2

x < 5

Answer:

x < 5

Step-by-step explanation:

2x -9<1

Add 9 to each side.

2x -9+9<1+9

2x <10

Divide each side by 2.

2x/2 < 10/2

x < 5

In the above fact scenario, what is the engineer's role and responsibility in evaluating whether or not GC property performed its contractual obligations?
Group of answer choices
A. To impartially interpret the contract documents in a manner that protects the owner.
B. To evaluate in an impartial manner whether there is a problem with the contract documents or whether the contractor performed the work correctly.
C. To choose some middle ground that preserves the peace.

Answers

In the given fact scenario, the engineer's role and responsibility in evaluating whether or not GC property performed its contractual obligations are

"to evaluate in an impartial manner whether there is a problem with the contract documents or whether the contractor performed the work correctly."

Option B is correct.

An engineer is a professional who has a legal and ethical obligation to evaluate construction projects impartially.

As such, in assessing whether or not GC property completed its contractual duties, the engineer must conduct an impartial investigation of the project's technical, legal, and contractual aspects in order to render a fair and accurate judgment.

It is the duty of the engineer to make a proper evaluation of the work done by GC property, whether it was performed correctly or not.

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Please can someone help me with the question i am struggling .

Answers

Answer: a) p decreases and b) v decreases

Step-by-step explanation: For a), you can test whether p increases or decreases based on the position of v. If v=1 then p=4/1=4 but that p number will change as v also changes. You can try other similar numbers for v like 2 and 3 and you can see that p gets fractions that continuously get smaller. This is a direct relationship in proportion so p decreases and v increases.

For b), use the same logic as a). You can ask yourself, "If p is increasing, what do I already know about the relationship from problem A?" Now we know that as v rises in value, p gets smaller, so the opposite must be true here. As P gets larger, v must get smaller and decrease in value.


A group of 75 math students were asked whether they
like algebra and whether they like geometry. A total of
45 students like algebra, 53 like geometry, and 6 do
not like either subject.

What are the correct values of a, b, c, d, and e?
a=16, b=29, c = 22, d=30, e=24
b=16, c=30, d=22, e=24
a=29,
O a=16, b=29, c= 24, d = 22, e = 30
a=29, b=16, c= 24, d=30, e = 22

Answers

The correct values of a, b, c, d, and e would be a = 16, b = 29, c = 22, d = 30, and e = 24. The data can be represented in the following table: Subjects Algebra Geometry, Neither Like 45 53 Not like - - 6. So, the values of a, b, c, d and e are: a = 16, b = 29, c = 22, d = 30, e = 24

Let's find the values of a, b, c, d, and e: a + b - 6 = 75 => a + b = 81 ...(i)

b + c - 6 = 75 => b + c = 81 ...(ii)

a + c - 6 = 75 => a + c = 81 ...(iii)

a + b + c - 2d - 6 = 75 => a + b + c = 2d + 81 ...(iv)

a + b + c + d + e = 75 => a + b + c + d + e = 75 ...(v)

From equations (i), (ii), and (iii), we get 2(a + b + c) = 2 × 81 => a + b + c = 81

From equations (iv) and (v), we have 2d + 81 = 75 + e => 2d = e - 6 => e = 2d + 6

Putting this value of e in equation (v), we get: a + b + c + d + (2d + 6) = 75 => a + b + c + 3d = 69

Putting the value of a + b + c as 81, we get: 81 + 3d = 69 => 3d = 69 - 81 => 3d = -12 => d = -4 (which is not possible). Hence, the values of a, b, c, d and e are: a = 16, b = 29, c = 22, d = 30, e = 24

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[20 Points] Consider the given differential equation: 3xy′′−3(x+1)y′+3y=0. A) Show that the function y=c1​ex+c2​(x+1) is a solution of the given DE. Is that the general solution? explain your answer. B) Find a solution to the BVP: 3xy′′−3(x+1)y′+3y=0,y(1)=−1,y(2)=1.

Answers

y=c1​ex+c2​(x+1) is a solution of the given DE. We have the characteristic equation as: [tex]3xr2 - 3xr + 3 = 0[/tex]

Dividing by 3, we obtain: x2 - x + 1 = 0

Solution: Given differential equation is: [tex]3xy'' - 3(x + 1)y' + 3y = 0Let y = ex, y' = ex, y'' = ex[/tex]

This implies that [tex]3xex - 3(x + 1)ex + 3ex = 0[/tex]  Hence, the required solution is:

[tex]y = (-2/sin(√3ln2))xsin(√3lnx) - x[/tex]

After solving it, we obtain the following:[tex](x + 1)ex - xex = 0=> xex(e + 1 - 1) = 0[/tex]

[tex]=> xex = 0=> ex = 0 or ex = e - 1[/tex]

So, the solution of given differential equation is:y = c1ex + c2(x + 1)ex where c1 and c2 are constants.

Therefore, B. Solution:

We have the differential equation as: [tex]3xy'' - 3(x + 1)y' + 3y = 0[/tex]

Given boundary conditions are: y(1) = -1 and y(2) = 1Let us solve this differential equation,

Let α and β be the roots of this quadratic equation.

Then we have:[tex]α = (-(-1) + i√3)/2 = (1 + i√3)/2β = (-1 - i√3)/2[/tex]

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