Answer:
precentral gyrus of the cerebrum
Shea is a registered nurse. Which of the given roles would come under her scope of work?
A. Clean the patient’s house regularly
B. Provide emotional and physical support to the patient
C. Purchase groceries for the patient
D. Ensure esthetic requirements are met on client’s request
Answer:
B
Explanation:
I took the test on Plato/edmentum and got it right
How much blood passes through the kidneys each minute?.
Blood flow to the kidneys reaches 1.2 liters per minute allowing these organs to filter and clean the blood of the body's metabolic waste substances, known as toxic substances (poisons).
What treatment site is usually recommended by a clinician when clients present a risk of harming themselves or others
Answer:
Psychiatric hospital
Explanation:
Excessive vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and loss of electrolytes is called __________.
Answer:
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010, a child's daily diet should consist of __________carbohydrate.
Answer:
45-65%
Explanation:
identify the ways that the redistribution of care work has impacted how care is given and received
The redistribution of care work ensures efficient healthcare delivery and has resulted in care getting to more people and in better ways.
What is redistribution of care work?Redistribution of care work refers to the process whereby work in healthcare is distributed into various departments in order to ensure efficient healthcare delivery.
Redistribution of care work include such areas as :
social healthcare primary healthcare reproductive healthcare emergency healthcareTherefore, the redistribution of care work has resulted in efficient healthcare delivery.
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Why do veterans have a hard time adjusting to civilian life?
Answer:
Veterans who say they had emotionally traumatic or distressing experiences related to military service and those who say they have suffered from post-traumatic stress (PTS) as a result of their experiences in the military are among the most likely to say their transition to civilian life was difficult.
The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of __________.
Answer:
The 3 main shunts in fetal circulation are ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus, and foramen ovale. The general purpose of these 3 shunts is to divert blood and nutrients efficiently for the fetus, including its fetal heart and body.
Explanation:
The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of pulmonary bypass shunts, which serve to bypass the lungs. The correct option is a.
During fetal development, the lungs are non-functional as the oxygenation of the blood primarily occurs through the placenta.
The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are two anatomical structures that facilitate the diversion of blood away from the lungs, bypassing their non-functioning state.
The foramen ovale is a hole or opening between the two atria of the fetal heart. It allows oxygenated blood returning from the placenta to pass directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing pulmonary circulation.
The ductus arteriosus is a blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta in the fetal heart. It serves as a shunt that diverts a portion of the blood from the pulmonary artery directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing the lungs.
Thus, the correct option is a.
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The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of __________.
a. pulmonary bypass shunts, which serve to bypass the lungs
b. cells of the somatic mesoderm, which help to form the dermis of the skin
c. venous shunts, which serve to bypass the liver sinusoids
d. cells of the mesoderm that form the heart and blood vessels
Which activity, when a daily part of a child's life, is most associated with health problems later in life
Answer:
More than half (56%) of all veterans who experienced a traumatic event say they have had flashbacks or repeated distressing memories of the experience, and nearly half (46%) say they have suffered from post-traumatic stress.
what is nectar consistency
Answer:
nectar is thick
Explanation:
While there is no consensus concerning the best type of practice schedule to use, research does indicate that distributed practice leads to immediate improvement when compared to ____ practice schedules.
Distributed practice leads to improvement when compared to masses practice schedules for learning motor skills.
What is a motor skills?It should be noted that motor skills simply means the function that has to do with specific movement of the body's muscle to perform a task.
In this case, distributed practice leads to improvement when compared to masses practice schedules for learning motor skills.
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Diseases that result from chronic exposure to excess levels of stressors, which produce a general adaptation syndrome response are
Which produce a general adaptation syndrome response are burnout syndrome at work and various symptoms in the body
What does stress cause in the body?Stress can influence the following problems:
headachedifficulty sleepingconstipationdiarrheairritabilitylack of energylack of concentrationovereating or not eatingangersadnessincreased risk of asthma attacks and arthritistensionstomach crampsstomach bloating, etc.With this information, we can conclude that which produce a general adaptation syndrome response are burnout syndrome at work and various symptoms in the body.
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Many b vitamins have a role in what important process?.
Vitamin B has a role in the process of maintenance of body cell functioning.
The importance of Vitamin BVitamin B is one of the water soluble vitamins that are made up of the following:
B-1 (thiamine),B-2 (riboflavin),B-3 (niacin),B-5 (pantothenic acid),B-6 (pyridoxine),B-7 (biotin),B-9 (folic acid), andB-12 (cobalamin).The general functions of Vitamin B is that is maintains the functioning of the body cells through the promotion of :
cell health,
growth of red blood cells,
energy levels,
good eyesight,
healthy brain function,
good digestion, and
healthy appetite.
Therefore, Vitamin B has a role in the process of maintenance of body cell functioning.
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Explain the importance of emulsification in lipid digestion.
Answer:
Emulsification is important for the digestion of lipids because lipases can only efficiently act on the lipids when they are broken into small aggregates. Lipases break down the lipids into fatty acids and glycerides.
Explanation:
Emulsification plays a crucial role in lipid digestion by enhancing the efficiency of enzymatic breakdown and facilitating the absorption of lipids in the digestive system. Here are the key reasons why emulsification is important in lipid digestion:
1. Enhances Surface Area: Emulsification breaks down large lipid droplets into smaller droplets, increasing the overall surface area available for enzymatic action. Lipids are hydrophobic (water-insoluble) substances, and their large droplets have minimal contact with water and digestive enzymes. Emulsification disperses these large droplets into smaller droplets, allowing greater exposure to water and enzymes, thus promoting efficient digestion.
2. Increases Enzyme Accessibility: Emulsification helps solubilize lipids and expose them to digestive enzymes called lipases. Lipases act on the surface of lipid droplets to break down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol. Emulsification enables lipases to access and digest lipids more effectively, accelerating the breakdown process.
3. Produces Micelles: Emulsification results in the formation of micelles, which are small aggregates of bile salts, phospholipids, and partially digested lipids. Micelles serve as transport vehicles that carry the digested lipids, such as fatty acids and fat-soluble vitamins, to the surface of the small intestine for absorption. Without emulsification, lipids would remain as large, undigested droplets, making absorption difficult.
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Why does the large intestine not contain villi and microvilli?.
Answer:
It is not specialized for absorption of nutrients; it is specialized in the absorption of water. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine.
The right upper quadrant FAST view requires the ultrasound transducer to be held in a __________ plane.
Answer:
Coronal
Explanation:
The right upper quadrant FAST view requires the ultrasound transducer to be held in a Coronal plane.
You have been assigned to care for Jack, a 15-year-old who sustained multiple
fractures of the lower extremities in a skiing accident. Morphine sulfate is one
of the drugs used in his care. Jack's parents are aware of the need for various
treatments, including the use of morphine sulfate to treat his pain, but they
worry he may become addicted to the medication.
1. Why do some narcotic
drugs have a stronger
potential of causing
addiction than other
narcotic drugs?
Answer:
It is unknown why some people are more likely to become addicted than others. Opioids change the chemistry of the brain and lead to drug tolerance, which means that over time the dose needs to be increased to achieve the same effect.Explanation:
What food should be withheld from a baby during the first year of life because of its potential to cause botulism
Answer:
Honey
Explanation:
A client with asthma comes to the emergency department very anxious due to increasing shortness of breath. Physical assessment reveals tachypnea, and an arterial blood gas shows decreased carbon dioxide levels and hypoxemia. What is the most likely cause of the decreased carbon dioxide levels
Answer:
hyperventilation?
Explanation
Does medicare cover transportation to medical appointments?.
The concave region of an organ where structures enter and exit that organ is named what?.
Answer:
hilum
Explanation:
The concave region of an organ where structures enter and exit that organ is called the hilum
What part of the retina is responsible for the sharpest vision?.
Answer:
Covea
Explanation:
contains a high concentration of cones
Answer:
Explanation:
In the center of the retina is the macula, which is responsible for our near vision. In the center of the macula is the fovea, responsible for our sharpest vision.
Which of these is a noncommunicable disease?A.HypertensionB.TuberculosisC.FluD.Hepatitis
Answer:
A. Hypertension
A client sees a Nutrition Coach having previously followed a diet that separated foods into healthy and unhealthy choices. What sort of dietary approach does this represent?
The sort of dietary approach that represents a diet that separates foods into healthy and unhealthy choices is a Rigid restraint.
What is a dietary approach?A dietary approach makes reference to the eating restrictions of certain foods during a particular diet.
A rigid restrain is a type of dietary approach where many types of food are restringed in order to fulfill the objectives.
A rigid restraint can be effective only when all macronutrients and micronutrients are consumed properly.
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What is the maximum time that prepared foods can be left in the danger zone? Group of answer choices 30 minutes 1 hour 2 hours 4 hours
Answer:
The maximum time that prepared foods can be left in the danger zone is 1 hour.
Even brief interruptions of chest compressions may significantly reduce their effectiveness, but it is also important to assess the need to continue chest compressions. What is the preferred way to assess the heart rate during chest compressions?
Given what we know, we can confirm that the preferred way to assess the heart rate during chest compressions would be through the use of Electronic cardiac Monitoring.
What is Electronic cardiac monitoring?This is the ideal way to monitor the heart rate during chest compressions. Though not always possible due to lack of equipment, this method is the preferred way whenever the necessary equipment is at hand due to it allowing you to monitor the heart rate without the need to interrupt chest compressions, greatly increasing their effectiveness.
Therefore, we can confirm that the preferred way to assess the heart rate during chest compressions would be through the use of Electronic cardiac Monitoring.
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What do most veterans suffer from? How to help them?
Answer:
Generally most veterans suffer from PTSD.
Explanation:
People who have PTSD may feel stressed or frightened, even when they are not in danger. Signs and Symptoms While most but not all traumatized people experience short term symptoms, the majority do not develop ongoing (chronic) PTSD. We can help people with PTSD by counseling etc.
QUESTION 1 Poly__________ is chronic inflammatory myopathy. a.myolacia b.myelitis c.myoporosis d.myositis 2 points QUESTION 2 RA is the abbreviation for: a.Right acromion b.Rheumatoid arthritis c.Rotated acetabulum d.Radial angiography 2 points QUESTION 3 ________plasty means surgical repair of a joint. a.Ankylo b.Arthro c.Chondro d.Burso 2 points QUESTION 4 The ________ is the smaller of the two lower leg bones. a.Fibula b.Malleolus c.Tibia d.Patella 2 points QUESTION 5 Having suffered severe burns in an accident, Steve develops hypocalcemia. Which laboratory test can detect hypocalcemia
you have to give options for the questions
A postpartum client is ready for discharge. Which client statement reflects an understanding of the teaching session
Answer:
ask question not to just playing here and people need to answer your question
Explanation:
do you want to delete your question buddy
The structures in humans that provide the ability to detect pain and therefore keep the body safe are called?
Answer:
nociceptors.
Explanation: