Someone help with process pleaseee

Someone Help With Process Pleaseee

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: n= 6  x= 38.7427    f= 4.618802    h= 9.237604

Step-by-step explanation:

for the first one:

there are 2 45 90 triangles. Since the sides of a 45 90 triangle are n for 45 and [tex]n\sqrt{2}[/tex] for the 90 degrees, that means that if [tex]6\sqrt{2} = n\sqrt{2}[/tex] then n is 6.

Second one:

You have to split the x into two parts.

Starting on the first part use the 30 60 90 triangle with given with the length for the 60°

60 = [tex]n\sqrt{3}[/tex]

so [tex]30=n\sqrt{3}[/tex]

n = 17.320506

so part of x is 17.320506

For the next triangle you would use Tan 35 = [tex]\frac{15}{y}[/tex]

this would equal 21.422201

adding both values up it would be 38.742707

Third question:

There is two 30 60 90 triangles

The 60° is equal to 8 which means [tex]8=n\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Simplifying this [tex]n=4.618802[/tex]

h = 2n.      which is h= 9.237604

f=n             f is 4.618802

Answer 2

Answer:

Special right-angle triangle:

1) Ratio of angles: 45: 45: 90

  Ratio of sides: 1: 1: √2

Sides are n, n, n√2

  The side opposite to 90° = n√2

           n√2 = 6√2

                [tex]\boxed{\sf n = 6}[/tex]

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

2) Ratio of angles: 30: 60: 90

  Ratio of side: 1: √3: 2

Sides are m, m√3, 2m.

Side opposite to 60° = m√3

     m√3 = 30

           [tex]m = \dfrac{30}{\sqrt{3}}\\\\\\m = \dfrac{30\sqrt{3}}{3}\\\\m = 10\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Side opposite to 30° = m

          m = 10√3

In ΔABC,

          [tex]Tan \ 35= \dfrac{opposite \ side \ of \angle C }{adjacent \ side \ of \angle C}\\\\\\~~~~~~0.7 = \dfrac{15}{CB}\\\\[/tex]

       0.7 * CB = 15

                [tex]CB =\dfrac{15}{0.7}\\\\CB = 21.43[/tex]

x = m + CB

   = 10√3 + 21.43

  = 10*1.732 + 21.43

  = 17.32 + 21.43

  = 38.75

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

3) Ratio of angles: 30: 60: 90

    Ratio of side: 1: √3: 2

Sides are y, y√3, 2y.

Side opposite to 60° = y√3

         [tex]\sf y\sqrt{3}= 8\\\\ ~~~~~ y = \dfrac{8}{\sqrt{3}}\\\\~~~~~ y =\dfrac{8*\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}*\sqrt{3}}\\\\\\~~~~~ y =\dfrac{8\sqrt{3}}{3}[/tex]

    Side opposite to 30° = y

              [tex]\sf f = y\\\\ \boxed{f = \dfrac{8\sqrt{3}}{3}}[/tex]

 Side opposite to 90° = 2y

           h = 2y

          [tex]\sf h =2*\dfrac{8\sqrt{3}}{3}\\\\\\\boxed{h=\dfrac{16\sqrt{3}}{3}}[/tex]    

Someone Help With Process Pleaseee

Related Questions

there is an experiment done using the Basic hydrology system to do the investigation of rainfall and runoff and also flow from the well.
From the experiment we find Piezometer Position, Radius from well (mm), and Head (mm).

Answers

The experiment using the Basic Hydrology system provides valuable insights into the relationship between rainfall, runoff, and the flow of groundwater from a well. By analyzing the data on Piezometer Position, Radius from well, and Head, we can better understand the hydrological dynamics of the area under investigation.

To analyze the experiment's findings, we can follow these steps:

1. Understand the variables:
  - Piezometer Position: This refers to the location of the piezometer, which measures the pressure of groundwater.
  - Radius from well: This is the distance between the well and the piezometer, measured in millimeters (mm).
  - Head: The head represents the height of the water level in the piezometer, also measured in millimeters (mm). It indicates the pressure of the groundwater.

2. Analyze the relationship between variables:
  - By examining the Piezometer Position and Radius from well, we can understand the spatial distribution of the piezometers around the well. This information helps us determine how the pressure of groundwater varies with distance from the well.
  - The Head measurements provide insights into the pressure of groundwater at different points around the well. Comparing the heads at different piezometer positions helps identify areas of higher or lower groundwater pressure.

3. Interpret the data:
  - Based on the findings, we can draw conclusions about the flow of groundwater and the effects of rainfall and runoff on the hydrological system. For example, if there is a high head in a particular piezometer position after heavy rainfall, it suggests that water is flowing into the well from that direction.

4. Use examples to support your interpretation:
  - Suppose the experiment shows a piezometer positioned close to the well with a large radius and a high head. This indicates that the pressure of groundwater is high near the well due to the proximity and the large area of influence. Conversely, a piezometer positioned farther away with a small radius and a low head suggests lower groundwater pressure in that location.

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alculating the indefinite integral ∫x/(√8-2x-x^2)dx is -(√A-(x+1)^2)-arcsin B+C. Find A and B.

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Partial fraction decomposition is a method used to convert a complicated fraction into simpler ones by decomposing the fraction into two or more parts such that each part has a simpler denominator.

Let us begin by finding the roots of the denominator. [tex]√8 - 2x - x² = 0 x² + 2x - √8 = 0[/tex] On solving the above quadratic equation, we obtain the values of x as x = - (1 + √9 + √8)/2 and x = - (1 + √9 - √8)/2

The roots of the quadratic equation are negative. Therefore, we can split the fraction into two parts based on the roots of the denominator.

[tex]∫x/(√8-2x-x²)dx = A/(x + (1 + √9 + √8)/2) + B/(x + (1 + √9 - √8)/2)[/tex]The values of A and B are to be determined by equating the above equation to the original one.

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Solve the equation 4/x+7​=2 a) x=1 b) x=−7 c) x=−5 d) no solution

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The given equation is: `4/x+7 = 2`To solve the equation, we'll isolate x.

The first step is to get rid of the fraction, we can do that by multiplying both sides of the equation by `x + 7`:`(x + 7) * 4/(x + 7) = 2(x + 7)` Simplify:`4 = 2x + 14`

Subtract 14 from both sides:`-10 = 2x`

Solve for `x` by dividing both sides by 2:`x = -5. `Therefore, the answer is option c) x = -5

To solve the equation `4/x+7 = 2`, we multiply both sides of the equation by `(x + 7)` to eliminate the fraction, and simplify the resulting equation to obtain `x = -5`.

To solve the given equation 4/x+7 = 2, we will multiply both sides of the equation by (x + 7) to eliminate the fraction. The equation now becomes 4 = 2(x + 7).

Simplifying this expression by using the distributive property on the right-hand side, we obtain 4 = 2x + 14.

Next, we subtract 14 from both sides of the equation to isolate the variable `x`. The resulting equation is -10 = 2x.

We now divide both sides of the equation by 2 to obtain the value of `x`. Thus, x = -5.

Therefore, the answer is option c) x = -5.

In conclusion, the solution of the given equation 4/x+7 = 2 is x = -5. To obtain this result, we eliminated the fraction by multiplying both sides of the equation by (x + 7). Then, we simplified the resulting equation and isolated the variable x. Finally, we obtained the value of `x` by dividing both sides of the equation by 2.

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a) evaluate the sum b) Prove the formula (2-1) = N². i=0

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To evaluate the sum and prove the formula (2-1) = N², where i ranges from 0 to N, we can use mathematical induction.

Step 1: Base Case

Let's start with the base case where N = 0. In this case, the sum becomes:

(2-1) = 0²

On the left side, we have 1, and on the right side, we have 0. Both sides are equal, so the formula holds true for the base case.

Step 2: Inductive Hypothesis

Assume that the formula holds true for some arbitrary positive integer k, i.e., (2-1) + (2-1) + ... + (2-1) (k times) = k².

Step 3: Inductive Step

We need to prove that the formula holds for the next positive integer k+1, i.e., (2-1) + (2-1) + ... + (2-1) ((k+1) times) = (k+1)².

Let's consider the sum for k+1:

(2-1) + (2-1) + ... + (2-1) ((k+1) times)

We can rewrite this sum as:

[(2-1) + (2-1) + ... + (2-1) (k times)] + (2-1)

Using the inductive hypothesis, we can substitute the sum in square brackets with k²:

k² + (2-1)

Simplifying further, we get:

k² + 1

Now, let's evaluate (k+1)²:

(k+1)² = k² + 2k + 1

Comparing this with the expression k² + 1, we can see that they are equal.

Step 4: Conclusion

Based on the base case and the inductive step, we can conclude that the formula (2-1) = N² holds for all positive integers N, as the formula is true for N = 0 and assuming it holds for k implies it holds for k+1.

Therefore, we have proven the formula (2-1) = N² for all positive integers N.

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Consider a two-stage cascade refrigeration system operating between -50°C and 50°C. Each stage operates on an ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle. The upper cycle uses ammonia as working fluid; lower cycle uses R-410a. In the lower cycle refrigerant condenses at -10°C, in the upper cycle refrigerant evaporates at 0°C. If the mass flow rate in the upper cycle is 0.5 kg/s, determine the following: a.) the mass flow rate through the lower cycle: kg/s b.) the rate of cooling in tons: c.) the rate of heat removed from the cycle: d.) the compressors power input in kW: e.) the coefficient of performance: KW

Answers

The calculations involve determining the mass flow rates, cooling rate, heat removal rate, compressor power input, and coefficient of performance (COP).

What are the key calculations and parameters involved in analyzing a two-stage cascade refrigeration system?

a) The mass flow rate through the lower cycle can be determined using the principle of conservation of mass. Since the upper cycle mass flow rate is given as 0.5 kg/s, we can assume that the mass flow rate through the lower cycle is also 0.5 kg/s.

b) The rate of cooling in tons can be calculated by dividing the heat removed from the cycle by the refrigeration effect. Since the refrigeration effect is given by the mass flow rate through the upper cycle multiplied by the enthalpy change between the evaporator and the condenser, we need additional information to calculate the rate of cooling in tons.

c) The rate of heat removed from the cycle can be calculated by multiplying the mass flow rate through the upper cycle by the specific heat capacity of the working fluid and the temperature difference between the evaporator and the condenser.

d) The compressor's power input in kW can be determined using the equation: power = mass flow rate through the upper cycle multiplied by the specific enthalpy increase across the compressor.

e) The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio of the rate of cooling to the compressor's power input. It can be calculated by dividing the rate of cooling in tons by the power input in kW.

For a more accurate calculation, specific values for enthalpies, specific heat capacities, and refrigeration effect are required.

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Which one of the following points does not belong to the graph of the circle: (x−3) ^2+(y+2) ^2 =25 ? A) (8,−2) B) (3,3) C) (3,−7) D) (0,2) E) (−2,−3)

Answers

The point that does not belong to the graph of the circle is E) (-2, -3).

To determine which point does not belong to the graph of the circle given by the equation [tex]\((x-3)^2 + (y+2)^2 = 25\),[/tex]we can substitute the coordinates of each point into the equation and check if it satisfies the equation.

Let's go through each option:

A) (8, -2):
Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]=\((8-3)^2 + (-2+2)^2 \\=25\)\(5^2 + 0^2 \\= 25\)\(25 + 0 \\= 25\)\\[/tex]
The point (8, -2) satisfies the equation.

B) (3, 3):
Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]=\((3-3)^2 + (3+2)^2 \\= 25\)\(0^2 + 5^2 \\= 25\)\(0 + 25 \\= 25\)[/tex]

The point (3, 3) satisfies the equation.

C) (3, -7):
Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]=\((3-3)^2 + (-7+2)^2 \\= 25\)\(0^2 + (-5)^2 \\= 25\)\(0 + 25 \\= 25\)\\[/tex]
The point (3, -7) satisfies the equation.

D) (0, 2):
Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]=\((0-3)^2 + (2+2)^2 \\= 25\)\((-3)^2 + 4^2 \\= 25\)\(9 + 16 \\= 25\)[/tex]

The point (0, 2) satisfies the equation.

E) (-2, -3):
Substituting the values, we get:
[tex]=\((-2-3)^2 + (-3+2)^2 \\= 25\)\((-5)^2 + (-1)^2 \\= 25\)\(25 + 1 \\= 26\)\\[/tex]
The point (-2, -3) does not satisfy the equation.

Therefore, the point that does not belong to the graph of the circle is E) (-2, -3).

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Q8) The velocity distribution for the flow of a Newtonian fluid between two wide, parallel plates is given by the equation u = (3V/2) [1-(y/h) 2], where V is the mean velocity and the fluid has dynamic viscosity of 0.38 N.s/m² h = 5.0 mm, V = 0.61 m/s. Determine: (a) the shearing stress acting on the bottom wall, and (b) the shearing stress acting on a plane parallel to the walls and passing through the centerline (mid plane).
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Answers

The velocity distribution for the flow of a Newtonian fluid between two wide, parallel plates is given by the equation u = (3V/2) [1-(y/h)^2], where V is the mean velocity, y is the distance from the bottom plate, and h is the distance between the plates.

To determine the shearing stress acting on the bottom wall (a), we can use the equation for shear stress, which is given by τ = μ(dv/dy), where τ is the shearing stress, μ is the dynamic viscosity, and (dv/dy) is the velocity gradient in the y-direction.

In this case, the velocity gradient can be obtained by differentiating the velocity distribution equation with respect to y.

Let's calculate it step-by-step:

1. Differentiate the velocity distribution equation u = (3V/2) [1-(y/h)^2] with respect to y:
  du/dy = (3V/2) * d/dy [1-(y/h)^2]
2. Applying the chain rule, the differentiation of [1-(y/h)^2] with respect to y is:
  du/dy = (3V/2) * [-2(y/h)] * (1/h)
3. Simplify the equation:
  du/dy = -(3V/h^2) * y
4. Now, substitute the given values into the equation:
  du/dy = -(3 * 0.61 / (0.005^2)) * y
5. Calculate the velocity gradient for y = 0 (at the bottom wall):
  du/dy = -(3 * 0.61 / (0.005^2)) * 0

Since y = 0 at the bottom wall, the velocity gradient du/dy is equal to 0 at the bottom wall. Therefore, the shearing stress acting on the bottom wall is also 0. To determine the shearing stress acting on a plane parallel to the walls and passing through the centerline (mid plane) (b), we need to calculate the velocity gradient at the mid plane.

Let's calculate it step-by-step:

1. Calculate the distance from the mid plane to the top wall:
  Distance from mid plane to top wall = (h/2)
2. Calculate the velocity gradient at the mid plane:
  du/dy = -(3 * 0.61 / (0.005^2)) * (h/2)
3. Simplify the equation:
  du/dy = -(3 * 0.61 / (0.005^2)) * (h/2)
4. Substitute the given value of h:
  du/dy = -(3 * 0.61 / (0.005^2)) * (0.005/2)
5. Calculate the shearing stress at the mid-plane:
  τ = μ * (du/dy)

Substitute the given value of dynamic viscosity μ into the equation to find the shearing stress at the mid-plane.

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Reinforced concrete beam having a width of 500 mm and an effective depth of 750 mm is reinforced with 5 – 25mm p. The beam has simple span of 10 m. It carries an ultimate uniform load of 50 KN/m. Use f'c = 28 MPa, and fy = 413 MPa. Determine the ultimate moment capacity in KN- m when two bars are cut at a distance from the support. Express your answer in two decimal places.

Answers

The ultimate moment capacity of the reinforced concrete beam when two bars are cut at a distance from the support is approximately 157.10 kN-m, expressed in two decimal places.

To determine the ultimate moment capacity of the reinforced concrete beam when two bars are cut at a distance from the support, we need to consider the bending moment and the reinforcement provided.

Given:

Width of the beam (b): 500 mm

Effective depth (d): 750 mm

Reinforcement diameter (ϕ): 25 mm

Span (L): 10 m

Ultimate uniform load (w): 50 kN/m

Concrete compressive strength (f'c): 28 MPa

Steel yield strength (fy): 413 MPa

First, we need to calculate the neutral axis depth (x) based on the given dimensions and reinforcement.

For a rectangular beam with tension reinforcement only, the neutral axis depth is given by:

[tex]x = (A_{st} * fy) / (0.85 * f'c * b)[/tex]

Where:

[tex]A_{st[/tex] = Area of steel reinforcement

[tex]A_{st[/tex] = (number of bars) × (π × (ϕ/2)²)

Given that there are 5 - 25 mm diameter bars, the area of steel reinforcement is:

[tex]A_{st[/tex] = 5 × (π × (25/2)²)

= 5 × (π × 6.25)

= 98.174 mm²

Converting [tex]A_{st[/tex] to square meters:

[tex]A_{st[/tex] = 98.174 mm² / (1000 mm/m)²

= 0.000098174 m²

Now we can calculate the neutral axis depth:

x = (0.000098174 m² × 413 MPa) / (0.85 × 28 MPa × 0.5 m)

= 0.025 m

Next, we calculate the moment capacity (Mu) using the formula:

Mu = (0.85 × f'c × b × x × (d - 0.4167 × x)) / 10 + (A_st × fy × (d - 0.4167 × x)) / 10

Plugging in the values:

Mu = (0.85 × 28 MPa × 0.5 m × 0.025 m × (0.75 m - 0.4167 × 0.025 m)) / 10 + (0.000098174 m² × 413 MPa × (0.75 m - 0.4167 × 0.025 m)) / 10

Calculating the above expression, we get:

Mu ≈ 157.10 kN-m

Therefore, the ultimate moment capacity of the reinforced concrete beam when two bars are cut at a distance from the support is approximately 157.10 kN-m, expressed in two decimal places.

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Define the following terms according to their usage in discrete structures:
argument
premise
conclusion
syllogism
fallacy
contraposition
contradiction
proof by cases
proof by counter example
induction
Write an example of each of the following:
modus ponens
modus tollens
disjunctive syllogism
hypothetical syllogism
addition
simplification
disjunction
resolution
generalization
constructive or destructive dillemma

Answers

The terms in discrete structures are defined as follows:

1.Argument: A set of statements where one or more statements (premises) are used to support another statement (conclusion).

2.Premise: A statement or proposition that serves as evidence or support for a conclusion in an argument.

3.Conclusion: The statement that is supported or inferred from the premises in an argument.

4.Syllogism: A form of deductive reasoning that consists of two premises and a conclusion, following a specific logical structure.

5.Fallacy: An error in reasoning that leads to an invalid or unsound argument.

6.Contraposition: A logical inference that involves negating and reversing the terms of a conditional statement.

7.Contradiction: A statement or proposition that is opposite or negates another statement, leading to a logical inconsistency.

8.Proof by cases: A method of proof where all possible cases or scenarios are examined to establish the truth of a statement.

9.Proof by counterexample: A method of disproving a statement by providing a specific example that contradicts it.

10.Induction: A form of reasoning that involves making generalizations or drawing conclusions based on specific instances or observations.

1.Modus ponens: If A, then B. A is true, therefore B is true.

Example: If it is raining, then the ground is wet. It is raining. Therefore, the ground is wet.

2.Modus tollens: If A, then B. Not B is true, therefore not A is true.

Example: If it is a weekday, then I go to work. I am not going to work. Therefore, it is not a weekday.

3.Disjunctive syllogism: A or B. Not A is true, therefore B is true.

Example: It is either sunny or cloudy. It is not sunny. Therefore, it must be cloudy.

4.Hypothetical syllogism: If A, then B. If B, then C. Therefore, if A, then C.

Example: If it rains, then the ground is wet. If the ground is wet, then it is slippery. Therefore, if it rains, it is slippery.

5.Addition: A. Therefore, A or B.

Example: It is raining. Therefore, it is raining or the sun is shining.

6.Simplification: A and B. Therefore, A.

Example: The car is red and it is parked. Therefore, the car is red.

7.Disjunction: A or B. Therefore, B or A.

Example: It is either Monday or Tuesday. Therefore, it is either Tuesday or Monday.

8.Resolution: (A or B) and (not B or C). Therefore, A or C.

Example: It is either raining or snowing, and it is not snowing or it is cold. Therefore, it is either raining or it is cold.

9.Generalization: A specific statement is true for a particular case, therefore it is true for all cases.

Example: I have seen five black cats, and they were all friendly. Therefore, all black cats are friendly.

10.Constructive or destructive dilemma: If A, then B. If C, then D. A or C is true. Therefore, B or D is true.

Example: If it is sunny, then I will go swimming. If it is cloudy, then I will go hiking. It is either sunny or cloudy. Therefore, I will either go swimming or hiking.

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A polymer flows steadily in the horizontal pipe under the following conditions: p = 1000 kg/m3³; μ = 0.01 kg/m s, D = 0.03 m, and um = 0.3 m/s. Evaluate the following a. The Reynolds number b. The frictional dissipation per meter per kg flowing c. The pressure drop per meter

Answers

The Reynolds number is 900, the frictional dissipation per meter per kg flowing is 8, and the pressure drop per meter is 78480 Pa/m.

Density of the polymer, ρ = 1000 kg/m³

Dynamic viscosity of the polymer, μ = 0.01 kg/m s

Diameter of the pipe, D = 0.03 m

Average velocity of the polymer, um = 0.3 m/s

Reynolds number is defined as the ratio of inertial forces of a fluid to its viscous forces.

Reynolds number can be calculated as follows:

Re = ρuD/μ

Where:

ρ = 1000 kg/m³

u = 0.3 m/s

D = 0.03 m

μ = 0.01 kg/m s

Substituting these values in the formula:

Re = (1000 × 0.3 × 0.03) / 0.01

Re = 900

Frictional dissipation per meter per kg flowing is defined as the force per unit area required to maintain a given velocity gradient in a fluid over a fixed distance.

Frictional dissipation can be calculated as follows:

hf = (4fLρu²) / (2gD)

Where:

f = friction factor

L = length

u = velocity of the fluid in the pipe

D = diameter of the pipe

g = acceleration due to gravity

Substituting these values in the formula:

hf = (4fLρu²) / (2gD)

hf = (4 × 0.0268 × 1 × 0.3² × 1000) / (2 × 9.81 × 0.03)

hf = 8.00

Pressure drop per meter is defined as the loss of pressure when fluid flows through a pipe.

Pressure drop can be calculated as follows:

ΔP = hfρg

Where:

hf = frictional head loss per unit length

ρ = density of the fluid

g = acceleration due to gravity

Substituting these values in the formula:

ΔP = hfρg

ΔP = 8.00 × 1000 × 9.81

ΔP = 78480 Pa/m

Therefore, the Reynolds number is 900, the frictional dissipation per meter per kg flowing is 8, and the pressure drop per meter is 78480 Pa/m.

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round √30​ ​ to two decimal places.
i need help asap pls

Answers

Answer:

5.48

Step-by-step explanation:

√30 = 5.4772255... (using a calculator)

√30 = 5.48

An oil well has been drilled and completed. The productive zone has been encountered at a depth of 7815-7830 feet. The log analysis showed an average porosity of 15% and an average water saturation of 35%. The oil formation volume factor is determined in the laboratory to be 1.215 RB/STB. Experience shows other reservoirs of about the same properties drain 80 acres with a recovery factor of 12%. Compute the OOIP and the ultimate oil recovery. If after 5 years of production, only 5% of the reserve has been produced. What is the amount of reserve still left in place.

Answers

The amount of reserve still left in place after 5 years of production is 8,650,116.46 STB.

Percentage of reserve left in place = 95%OOIP (Original Oil in Place) is the volume of oil present in a reservoir before production, which can be calculated using the given information as follows:

Area of the reservoir = π/4 × (rod length)²

= π/4 × (15,405)

= 19,265,400 ft² = 443.6 acres

Drainage area is 80 acres, so the portion of the reservoir that contributes to production = 80/443.6

= 0.1803 of the reservoir or (1/0.1803 = 5.54) times the given volume of oil.

Estimated ultimate recovery factor (EUR) = Recovery factor × Drainage area

= 12% × 80 acres

= 9.6 acres or 0.0220 of the reservoir or (1/0.0220 = 45.45) times the given volume of oil.

The formula to calculate the original oil in place (OOIP) is:

OOIP = (7758 × A × h × φ × (1-Sw))/B

Where A = Area (acres)h = Net thickness (feet)

φ = Porosity (decimal)

Sw = Water saturation (decimal)

B = Formation volume factor (reservoir barrels per stock tank barrel)

Substituting the given values in the above formula:

OOIP = (7758 × 80 × (7815-7830) × 0.15 × (1-0.35))/1.215OOIP

= 9,105,385.46 STB

Now, the ultimate oil recovery can be calculated by multiplying OOIP by EUR.

Ultimate oil recovery = OOIP × EUR

= 9,105,385.46 × 0.0220

= 200,318.48 STB

After 5 years of production, the oil that has been produced is:

5% of OOIP = 0.05 × 9,105,385.46

= 455,269 STB

The amount of reserve still left in place after 5 years of production is 8,650,116.46 STB.

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The change in concentration of N2O5 in the reaction 2N2O5 (g) → 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) is shown below: Time (s) concentration of N2O5 (M) 0 0.020 1.00 x 102 0.017 2.00 x 102 0.014 3.00 x 102 0.014 4.00 x 102 0.010 5.00 x 102 0.009 6.00 x 102 0.007 7.00 x 102 0.006 Calculate the rate of decomposition of N2O5 between 100 - 300 s. what is the rate of reaction between the same time (100 - 300 s)?

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The rate of decomposition of N2O5 between 100 - 300 s is -1.5 x 10⁻⁵ M/s, and the rate of reaction within the same time is -7.5 x 10⁻⁶ M/s.

To calculate the rate of decomposition of N2O5 between 100 - 300 s, we need to determine the change in concentration of N2O5 and divide it by the corresponding time interval.

Change in concentration of N2O5 = [N2O5]final - [N2O5]initial

= 0.014 M - 0.017 M

= -0.003 M

Time interval = 300  - 100

= 200 s

Rate of decomposition of N2O5 = (Change in concentration of N2O5) / (Time interval)

= (-0.003 ) / (200 )

= -1.5 x 10 M/s

The rate of reaction between the same time interval (100 - 300 s) can be determined by dividing the rate of decomposition by the stoichiometric coefficient of N2O5 in the balanced equation. In this case, the coefficient is 2.

Rate of reaction = Rate of decomposition of N2O5 / 2

= (-1.5 x 10 ) / 2

= -7.5 x 10⁻⁶ M/s

Therefore, the rate of reaction between 100 - 300 s is -7.5 x 10⁻⁶ M/s.

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1) [A] Determine the factor of safety of the assumed failure surface in the embankment shown in the figure using simplified method of slices (the figure is not drawn to a scale). The water table is located 3m below the embankment surface level, the surface surcharge load is 12 KPa. Soil properties are: Foundation sand: Unit weight above water 18.87 KN/m Saturated unit weight below water 19.24 KN/m Angle of internal friction 289 Effective angle of internal friction 31° Clay: Saturated unit weight 15.72 KN/m Undrained shear strength 12 KPa The angle of internal friction 0° Embankment silty sand Unit weight above water 19.17 KN/m Saturated unit weight below water 19.64 KN/m The angle of internal friction 22° Effective angle of internal friction 26° Cohesion 16 KPa Effective cohesion 10 KPa Deep Sand & Gravel Unit weight above water 19.87 KN/m Saturated unit weight below water 20.24 KN/m The angle of internal friction 34° Effective angle of internal friction 36°

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To determine the factor of safety of the assumed failure surface in the embankment, we will use the simplified method of slices. Let's break down the steps:

1. Identify the different soil layers involved in the embankment:

- Foundation sand:
 - Unit weight above water: 18.87 kN/m³
 - Saturated unit weight below water: 19.24 kN/m³
 - Angle of internal friction: 28°
 - Effective angle of internal friction: 31°

- Clay:
 - Saturated unit weight: 15.72 kN/m³
 - Undrained shear strength: 12 kPa
 - Angle of internal friction: 0°

- Embankment silty sand:
 - Unit weight above water: 19.17 kN/m³
 - Saturated unit weight below water: 19.64 kN/m³
 - Angle of internal friction: 22°
 - Effective angle of internal friction: 26°
 - Cohesion: 16 kPa
 - Effective cohesion: 10 kPa

- Deep Sand & Gravel:
 - Unit weight above water: 19.87 kN/m³
 - Saturated unit weight below water: 20.24 kN/m³
 - Angle of internal friction: 34°
 - Effective angle of internal friction: 36°

2. Determine the height of the embankment above the water table:
- The water table is located 3m below the embankment surface level.

3. Calculate the total stresses acting on the assumed failure surface in the embankment:
- Consider the unit weights and surcharge load of each soil layer above the failure surface.

4. Calculate the pore water pressure at the failure surface:
- The saturated unit weight of each soil layer below the water table is relevant in this calculation.

5. Determine the effective stresses acting on the failure surface:
- Subtract the pore water pressure from the total stresses.

6. Calculate the shear strength along the failure surface:
- For each soil layer, consider the cohesion (if applicable) and the effective angle of internal friction.

7. Compute the factor of safety:
- Divide the sum of the resisting forces (shear strength) by the sum of the driving forces (shear stress).

Please note that to provide a specific factor of safety calculation, the exact geometry and dimensions of the embankment and failure surface are needed. This answer provides a general outline of the steps involved in determining the factor of safety using the simplified method of slices.

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construct triangle xyz mXY=4.5cm mYZ=3.4cm mZX=5.6cm


draw one altitude from X to YZ

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To construct triangle XYZ with the given dimensions and draw an altitude from X to YZ, follow these steps:

1. Draw a line segment XY of length 4.5 cm.
2. At point X, draw a ray in any direction.
3. With the compass set to a radius of 5.6 cm, draw an arc intersecting the ray at point A.
4. With the compass set to a radius of 3.4 cm, draw an arc from

a) Explain the main differences between combustion, gasification and pyrolysis technologies? Identify 3 main differences and briefly explain them. (no need to present detailed parameters) b) For landfill waste management, what are the main problems posed by the wastes in terms of high water content, and high organic content. c) which management method (thermal treatment vs landfill) is suitable for explosive/radiative hazardous waste?

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Waste management involves the collection, transportation, processing, and disposal of waste in a manner that is environmentally and socially responsible.

Combustion: Combustion is a process that involves the burning of a fuel in the presence of oxygen. It typically involves the complete oxidation of the fuel, resulting in the release of heat and the formation of combustion products such as carbon dioxide and water vapor. The main differences with gasification and pyrolysis are:

Combustion relies on the supply of oxygen to burn the fuel completely, whereas gasification and pyrolysis can occur in the absence or limited presence of oxygen.Combustion generally produces heat and energy as the primary outputs, while gasification and pyrolysis can produce a variety of outputs, including synthesis gas (syngas) in gasification and biochar in pyrolysis.Combustion is typically used for energy generation, such as in power plants or heating systems, while gasification and pyrolysis are often utilized for waste treatment, biofuel production, or chemical synthesis.

For landfill waste management, the high water content and high organic content of the wastes pose significant problems:

High water content: Landfill waste with high water content can lead to the production of leachate, which is a highly polluting liquid that can contaminate groundwater and surface water. It requires careful management and treatment to prevent environmental contamination. The leachate contains various pollutants, including heavy metals, organic compounds, and pathogens, which can have detrimental effects on ecosystems and human health.

High organic content: Landfill waste with high organic content contributes to the production of methane gas, a potent greenhouse gas that significantly contributes to climate change. Methane has a much higher global warming potential than carbon dioxide. Landfills are one of the largest human-made sources of methane emissions globally. To mitigate this issue, landfill operators often implement gas collection systems to capture and utilize methane as an energy source.

Thermal treatment methods, such as incineration, are typically more suitable for explosive or radiative hazardous waste. Incineration involves controlled combustion at high temperatures, which can effectively destroy hazardous substances and reduce them to less harmful compounds or ash. This process can handle hazardous waste materials that may contain explosive or radiative components, ensuring their safe disposal. Landfilling, on the other hand, is generally not suitable for explosive or radiative hazardous waste as it does not provide the necessary level of containment and control for these types of materials. Landfills are primarily designed for non-hazardous waste disposal and are subject to regulations and restrictions regarding the acceptance of hazardous materials.

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which of the following property describes the colligative property of a solution?A) a solution property that depends on the identity of the solute particles present B) a solution property that depends on the electrical charges of the solute particles present C) a solution property that depends on the concentration of solute particle present D) a solution property that depends on the pressure of the solute particles present

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C) a solution property that depends on the concentration of solute particle present. is the correct option. The solution property that depends on the concentration of solute particle present is called the colligative property of a solution.  

What are colligative properties? Colligative properties of solutions are physical properties that depend only on the number of solute particles dissolved in a solvent and not on their identity. Colligative properties include boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, vapor pressure reduction, and osmotic pressure.

For example, consider two aqueous solutions, one containing a mole of sucrose and the other containing a mole of sodium chloride. The NaCl solution has twice the number of solute particles as the sucrose solution. The colligative properties of the NaCl solution will be twice as much as the sucrose solution.

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In the equation x^2+10x+24=(x+a)(x+b), b is an integer. Find algebraically all possible values of b.

Answers

Answer:

b = 4, b = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

consider the left side

x² + 10x + 24

consider the factors of the constant term (+ 24) which sum to give the coefficient of the x- term (+ 10)

the factors are + 4 and + 6

then

x² + 10x + 24 = (x + 4)(x + 6) = (x + 6)(x + 4)

then (x + b) = (x + 4) or (x + 6)

with b = 4 or b = 6

We have five data points x₁=1, x₂ = 3, x₁=-1, x = 4, x5=-3 which are obtained from sampling a Gaussian distribution of zero mean. Derive the Maximum Likelihood Estimate of the variance of the Gaussian distribution and apply your derived formula to the given data set. Show all the steps in the calculation.

Answers

This is the maximum likelihood estimator of the variance of the Gaussian distribution, where $\hat{\mu}$ is the maximum likelihood estimator of the mean. We have the data points,

Let's use MLE to find the variance of the Gaussian distribution for the given dataset. The probability density function (PDF) of a Gaussian distribution with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$ is given by $f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}$

The likelihood function is given by $L(\mu, \sigma^2|x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = \prod_{i=1}^{n}f(x_i)$

Taking the logarithm of the likelihood function,$\ln{L} = -\frac{n}{2}\ln{2\pi}-n\ln{\sigma}-\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{(x_i-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}$Differentiating the logarithm of the likelihood function with respect to $\sigma$ and equating it to 0, we get,

[tex]$$\frac{d}{d\sigma}(\ln{L}) = -\frac{n}{\sigma}+\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{(x_i-\mu)^2}{\sigma^3}=0$$[/tex]Solving for $\sigma^2$, we get, $$\hat{\sigma^2} = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i-\hat{\mu})^2$$

[tex]$x_1=1$, $x_2=3$, $x_3=-1$, $x_4=4$,[/tex] and $x_5=-3$. The sample mean is given by,$$\hat{\mu} = \frac{1}{5}\sum_{i=1}^{5}x_i = \frac{4}{5}$$Therefore,

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Kendra has an unlimited supply of unbreakable sticks of length $2$, $4$ and $6$ inches. Using these sticks, how many non-congruent triangles can she make if each side is made with a whole stick? two sticks can be joined only at a vertex of the triangle. (a triangle with sides of lengths $4$, $6$, $6$ is an example of one such triangle to be included, whereas a triangle with sides of lengths $2$, $2$, $4$ should not be included. )

Answers

Answer:

  5

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to know the number of non-congruent triangles that can be formed with side lengths of 2 or 4 or 6.

Triangle inequality

The triangle inequality requires the sum of the two shorter sides exceed the length of the longest side. Possible triangles from these side lengths are ...

  {2, 2, 2} or {4, 4, 4} or {6, 6, 6} . . . . . an equilateral triangle

  {2, 4, 4}

  {2, 6, 6}

  {4, 4, 6}

  {4, 6, 6}

That is, 5 different triangle shapes can be formed from these side lengths.

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A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 332 mm^2 and a length of 169 m is suspended vertically from one end. The unit mass of steel is 7950 kg/m3 and E = 200x (10^3) MN/m2. Find the maximum tensile load in kN that the rod can support at the lower end if the total elongation should not exceed 65 mm.

Answers

Maximum tensile load: 4.67 kN . The cross-sectional area of the steel rod is 332 mm^2, which is equivalent to 0.332x10^-3 m^2. The length of the rod is 169 m.

The unit mass of steel is 7950 kg/m^3, and E (Young's modulus) is 200x10^3 MN/m^2. To find the maximum tensile load, we need to consider the elongation of the rod. Given that the total elongation should not exceed 65 mm (0.065 m), we can use Hooke's law:

Stress = Young's modulus × Strain

Since stress is force divided by area, and strain is the ratio of elongation to original length, we can rearrange the equation:

Force = Stress × Area × Length / Elongation

Substituting the given values:

Force = (200x10^3 MN/m^2) × (0.332x10^-3 m^2) × (169 m) / (0.065 m)

≈ 4.67 kN .

The steel rod can support a maximum tensile load of approximately 4.67 kN at the lower end, considering that the total elongation should not exceed 65 mm.

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What are the coefficients when the reaction below is balanced? Nitrogen dioxide reacts with dihydrogen dioxide to produce nitric acid (nitric acid is HNO3)

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The balanced equation for the reaction between nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and dihydrogen dioxide (H2O2) to produce nitric acid (HNO3) is:

2 NO2 + H2O2 → 2 HNO3

The balanced equation for the reaction between nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and dihydrogen dioxide (H2O2) to produce nitric acid (HNO3) is obtained by ensuring that the number of atoms of each element is equal on both sides of the equation.

In this reaction, we have two nitrogen dioxide molecules (2 NO2) reacting with one dihydrogen dioxide molecule (H2O2) to produce two molecules of nitric acid (2 HNO3).

To balance the equation, we need to adjust the coefficients in front of each compound to achieve an equal number of atoms on both sides. The balanced equation is:

2 NO2 + H2O2 → 2 HNO3

This equation indicates that two molecules of nitrogen dioxide react with one molecule of dihydrogen dioxide to produce two molecules of nitric acid.

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When the following equation is balanced properly under acidic conditions, what are the coefficients of the species shown? Mg2+ Cro4² + Water appears in the balanced equation as a product, neither) with a coefficient of How many electrons are transferred in this reaction? Cr3+ Submit Answer + Mg (reactant, (Enter 0 for neither.) Retry Entire Group 9 more group attempts remaining q When the following equation is balanced properly under acidic conditions, what are the coefficients of the species shown? Cr3+ CIO3 + Water appears in the balanced equation as a product, neither) with a coefficient of How many electrons are transferred in this reaction?

Answers

The coefficients of the species in the balanced equation are:
- Mg2+: 1
- CrO4²-: 1
- H2O: 4
- H+: 8

When balancing an equation under acidic conditions, we need to make sure that the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the equation.

For the equation:
Mg2+ + CrO4²- + H2O → (product)

To balance this equation, we need to determine the coefficients of each species. Let's go step by step:

1. Start by balancing the atoms other than hydrogen and oxygen. In this case, we have one magnesium ion (Mg2+) and one chromate ion (CrO4²-) on the left side of the equation. To balance these, we need to put a coefficient of 1 in front of each species:

Mg2+ + CrO4²- + H2O → (product)

2. Now let's balance the oxygen atoms. On the left side, there are four oxygen atoms in the chromate ion, so we need four water molecules (H2O) on the right side to balance the oxygen:

Mg2+ + CrO4²- + 4H2O → (product)

3. Finally, let's balance the hydrogen atoms. On the right side, we have 8 hydrogen atoms from the 4 water molecules. To balance this, we need to add 8 hydrogen ions (H+) on the left side:

Mg2+ + CrO4²- + 4H2O → (product) + 8H+

The coefficients of the species in the balanced equation are:
- Mg2+: 1
- CrO4²-: 1
- H2O: 4
- H+: 8

Now, moving on to the second part of the question, the number of electrons transferred in this reaction can be determined by looking at the change in oxidation states of the elements involved. However, the equation provided is incomplete, as there is no reactant specified. Therefore, it is not possible to determine the number of electrons transferred in this reaction without additional information.

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Choose the correct answer 1- The principle parties of construction project are: a) Client, designer, contractor. b) owner, client, contractor. c) owner, designer, client d) b or c. 2- construction can be defined as: a) The act of constructing. b) The result of constructing. c) The process, art, or manner of constructing something. d) All the above. 3- Construction process can be defined as: a) The process, art, or manner of constructing something. b) The process or step in which the plans, specifications, materials, permanent equipment are transformed by a contractor into a finished facility. c) The event in which the plans, specifications, materials, permanent equipment are transformed by a contractor into a finished facility. d) All the above. 4- Electric power construction projects, highways, utilities and petrochemicals plants are examples of...... a) Building construction projects. b) Heavy engineering construction projects. c) Manufacturing projects. d) Nothing from the above. 5- Equipment cost comes.......... .labor in terms of its effect on the outcome of a particular project. a) After. b) Before. c) With. d) Nothing from the above

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A comprehensive understanding of the principle parties in a construction project, the definition of construction, the construction process, examples of construction projects, and the relationship between equipment cost and labor.

1- The correct answer is a) Client, designer, contractor. The principle parties of a construction project include the client, who is the person or organization that initiates the project and funds it, the designer who creates the plans and specifications for the project, and the contractor who is responsible for the physical construction of the project.

2- The correct answer is d) All the above. Construction can be defined as the act of constructing, the result of constructing, and the process, art, or manner of constructing something. All these definitions encompass different aspects of the construction process.

3- The correct answer is d) All the above. The construction process can be defined as the process, art, or manner of constructing something, as well as the process or step in which the plans, specifications, materials, and permanent equipment are transformed by a contractor into a finished facility. It is also the event in which these elements are transformed. All these definitions capture different perspectives of the construction process.

4- The correct answer is b) Heavy engineering construction projects. Electric power construction projects, highways, utilities, and petrochemical plants are examples of heavy engineering construction projects. These projects involve complex engineering and infrastructure development.

5- The correct answer is c) With. Equipment cost comes with labor in terms of its effect on the outcome of a particular project. Equipment and labor are both important factors in construction projects, and their costs are interconnected and impact the final outcome.

These answers provide a comprehensive understanding of the principle parties in a construction project, the definition of construction, the construction process, examples of construction projects, and the relationship between equipment cost and labor.

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Write the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide that is synthesized if the top of the DNA is a coding strand (N-terminal amino acids on the left and C-terminal amino acids on the right)| 3'-TGGTAATTTTACAGTCGGGTACGTAGTTCACTAGATCCA-5' 5'-ACCATTAAAATGTCAGCCCATGCATCAAGTGATCTAGGT-3'

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When we read the DNA sequence in the 5’ to 3’ direction, we get the messenger RNA. The DNA sequence given is the coding strand, and we will use it to obtain the mRNA sequence.

Using the given DNA sequence, the mRNA will be:

5’-ACCAUUAAA AUGUCAG CCCAUGCAUCAAGUGAUCUAGGU-3’

Now, we can use the codon chart to obtain the amino acid sequence from the mRNA sequence.

Codon Chart:

UUU, UUC – Phenylalanine (Phe)

UUA, UUG – Leucine (Leu)

UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG – Serine (Ser)

UAU, UAC – Tyrosine (Tyr)

UAA, UAG, UGA – Stop

UGU, UGC – Cysteine (Cys)

UGG – Tryptophan (Trp)

CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG – Arginine (Arg)

CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG – Proline (Pro)

CAU, CAC – Histidine (His)

CAA, CAG – Glutamine (Gln)

CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG – Arginine (Arg)

AUU, AUC, AUA – Isoleucine (Ile)

AUG – Methionine (Met)

ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG – Threonine (Thr)

AAU, AAC – Asparagine (Asn)

AAA, AAG – Lysine (Lys)

AGU, AGC – Serine (Ser)

AGA, AGG – Arginine (Arg)

GUU, GUC, GUA, GUG – Valine (Val)

GCU, GCC, GCA, GCG – Alanine (Ala)

GAU, GAC – Aspartic Acid (Asp)

GAA, GAG – Glutamic Acid (Glu)

GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG – Glycine (Gly)

So, the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide will be:

Met-Phe-Lys-Cys-Pro-Cys-His-Gln-Val-Stop.

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DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS PROOF: Find a 1-parameter family of solutions for f ' (x) = f (-x)

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The 1-parameter family of solutions for the differential equation f'(x) = f(-x) is f(x) = F(x) + C.

Given a differential equation:

f'(x) = f(-x)

It is required to find the 1-parameter family of solutions for the given differential equation.

First, find the integral of the given differentiation equation.

Integrate both sides.

∫ f'(x) dx = ∫ f(-x) dx

It is known that ∫ f'(x) dx is equal to f(x).

So the equation becomes:

f(x) = ∫ f(-x) dx

f(x) = F(x) + C

where, F(x) = ∫ f(-x) dx, if f(x) is an odd function and  F(x) = ∫ f(x) dx when f(x) is even function.

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Which statements below are correct regarding intermolecular forces? 1. Hydrogen bonding is the strongest intermolecular force 2. Larger molecules will have weaker intermolecular forces 3. A phase change from gas to liquid results in the release of thermal energy 4. Dipole-induced dipole forces are stronger than ion-induced dipole forces 6. A phase change from a gas to a solid requires the same amount of energy as the sum of a phase change from gas phase to liquid phase and liquid phase to solid phase 7. A phase change from a liquid phase to a gas phase requires some of the inputted thermal enetgy to be lost as work 3. A liquid will only increase its rate of evaporation if the temperature is increased a. 1,3,5,6 b. 1,2,3,4,6 c. 3,7 d. none of the above choices is correct 8,2

Answers

Intermolecular forces refer to the attractive forces that occur between molecules. These forces hold molecules together in the liquid and solid phases, and they are responsible for the physical properties of substances. the statements that are correct regarding intermolecular forces are 1, 2, 3, 6, and 8. So, the answer is option (b) 1,2,3,4,6.

The statements that are correct regarding intermolecular forces are:1. Hydrogen bonding is the strongest intermolecular force. It is an intermolecular force that occurs in molecules that have hydrogen atoms bonded to highly electronegative atoms such as nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine.2. Larger molecules will have weaker intermolecular forces. The size of a molecule has an effect on its intermolecular forces. The larger the molecule, the greater the distance between the molecules, and the weaker the intermolecular forces.3. A phase change from gas to liquid results in the release of thermal energy.

When a gas changes to a liquid, it loses energy, which is released as thermal energy.6. A phase change from a gas to a solid requires the same amount of energy as the sum of a phase change from gas phase to liquid phase and liquid phase to solid phase. The amount of energy required for a phase change depends on the nature of the substance, not on the direction of the change.7. A phase change from a liquid phase to a gas phase requires some of the inputted thermal energy to be lost as work. When a liquid changes to a gas, it needs energy, which is taken from the surroundings, so the temperature decreases.8.

A liquid will only increase its rate of evaporation if the temperature is increased. Increasing the temperature of a liquid increases the kinetic energy of the molecules, causing them to move faster and escape the surface of the liquid more frequently. Hence, the statements that are correct regarding intermolecular forces are 1, 2, 3, 6, and 8. So, the answer is option (b) 1,2,3,4,6.

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A solid steel shaft is to be used to transmit 3,750 W from the motor to which it is attached. The shaft rotates at 175 rpm(rev/min). Determine the required diameter of the shaft to the nearest mm if the shaft has an allowable shearing stress of 100 MPa. Select one: O a. 32 mm O b. 25 mm O c. 36 mm O d. 22 mm

Answers

To transmit 3,750 W at 175 rpm with an allowable shearing stress of 100 MPa, the required diameter of the solid steel shaft, rounded to the nearest mm, is 32 mm.

Determine the torque (T) using the formula T = (P * 60) / (2 * π * N), where P is the power (in watts) and N is the rotational speed (in rev/min).

Calculate the shear stress (τ) using the formula τ = (16 * T) / (π * d^3), where d is the diameter of the shaft.

Rearrange the shear stress formula to solve for the diameter (d), considering the given shear stress limit (100 MPa).

Substitute the calculated torque and shear stress limit into the equation to find the required diameter of the solid steel shaft.

Round the diameter to the nearest mm, yielding the answer of 32 mm.

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a) Find the missing properties of water by making use of data tables: b) Sketch T-v diagram and locate the systems (A, B, C, D) on it.

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The following are the missing properties of water: Boiling point at atmospheric pressure: 100°Critical pressure: 220.6 barsSpecific heat capacity: 4.18 J/gKb) .

The T-v diagram with the systems (A, B, C, D) on it is as follows:System A: superheated steam (dry)System B: saturated steamSystem C: wet steam System D: compressed liquid waterThe T-v diagram of water is shown below.

In this diagram, the lines that divide the water states are called the saturation curve and the critical point is located at the end of the curve.Wet steam can be found on the left of the curve and dry or superheated steam can be found on the right of the curve.

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What is bleeding of concrete and are the factors effecting the bleeding.

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Bleeding of concrete refers to the process where water rises to the surface of freshly poured concrete. It occurs due to the settlement of solid particles within the concrete mixture, causing water to separate and migrate upwards. This can result in a layer of water forming on the surface, which can lead to various issues if not properly managed.

Several factors can affect the bleeding of concrete:

1. Water-cement ratio: The amount of water in the concrete mixture relative to the amount of cement greatly influences bleeding. Higher water-cement ratios increase the likelihood of bleeding, as there is more free water available to separate and rise to the surface.

2. Aggregate properties: The type, shape, and size of aggregates used in the concrete mixture can impact bleeding. Rounded or smooth aggregates tend to increase bleeding, while angular or rough aggregates can help reduce it.

3. Concrete mixture consistency: The consistency or workability of the concrete mixture affects bleeding. Mixtures with higher workability are more prone to bleeding as they have higher water content and increased flowability.

4. Admixtures: Certain admixtures, such as water-reducing agents, can modify the rheological properties of concrete and impact bleeding. These admixtures can either increase or decrease bleeding, depending on their specific characteristics and dosage.

5. Concrete temperature: The temperature of the concrete during placement and curing can influence bleeding. Higher temperatures accelerate the hydration process, leading to faster bleeding, while lower temperatures can slow down bleeding.

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question 3.(b) (5 points) (TRUE/FALSE) The set V of all invertible 2 x 2 matrices is a subsapce of Rx2 3. (10 points) Find a basis of all polynomials f(t) in P, such that f(1) = 0. (b). b) TCP demultiplexing. Suppose a process in host C has a TCP socket with port number 787. Suppose host A and host B each send a TCP segment to host C with destination port number 787. Will both of these segments be directed to the same socket at host C? If not, how will the process at host C know that these segments originated from two different hosts? What is gender performativity and what is its relation to howwe, as embodied persons, inhabit the world and practice our truths?(500 words) Although not true in all states, Florida requires a unanimous decision for a jury's verdict. Juries throughout our country can range anywhere from 6 to 12 members. Would a defendant like Clarence Gideon be better off with 12 members on the jury, or would he be better off to have fewer members? Explain your reasoning. Draw one (1) mechanism from each part of the experiment. Choose the one you believe most likely to occur in each part.- Add 6mL of 15% NaI in acetone into three (3) test tubes. Add six (6) drops of 1bromobutane to the first, six (6) drops of 2-bromobutane to the second, and six (6) drops of 2-bromo-2-methylpropane to the third.- Add 6mL of 0.1M AgNO3 in ethanol into three (3) test tubes. Add six (6) drops of 1bromobutane to the first, six (6) drops of 2-bromobutane to the second, and six (6) drops of 2-bromo-2-methylpropane to the third.- Add 6mL of 15% NaI in acetone into two (2) test tubes. Add twelve (12) drops of 1bromobutane to the first and twelve (12) drops of 1-bromo-2-methylpropane to the second.- Add 5mL of 15% NaI in acetone to two (2) test tubes. Add 10 drops of 1bromobutane to one tube and 10 drops of 1-chlorobutane to the other- Add 5mL of 0.1M AgNO3 in ethanol to two (2) test tubes. Add 5 drops of 2bromo-2- methylpropane to one tube and 5 drops of 2-chloro-2-methylpropane to the other.- . Add 10mL of 15% NaI in acetone to two (2) test tubes. Add 2mL of 1.0M 1bromobutane to one tube and 2mL of 2.0M 1-bromobutane to the other- Add 10mL of 1.0M 1-bromobutane to two (2) test tubes. Add 2mL of 7.5% NaI in acetone to one and 2mL of 15% NaI in acetone to the other.- Add 3mL of 0.01M 2-chloro-2-methylpropane to a test tube and 3mL of 0.1M 2chloro-2-methylpropane to another. Add 6mL of 0.1M AgNO3 in ethanol to both test tubes.-Add 4mL of 1.0M 1-bromobutane to two (2) test tubes. Add 2mL of 15% NaI in acetone to one and 2mL of 15% NaI in ethanol to the other. 15) Find one positive and one negative coterminal angle to 87 With NAT. a client can change their ISP without changing the addresses of devices within the local network True O False Reset Selection Calculate the maximum moment at a quarter point of span of 80ft, due to the moving load shown in Fig.Q.5(b). What is the yield-to-maturity of a 3-year bond with a coupon rate of 7% and face value of $100 ? Assume the bond is currently trading at a price of $100, and that couponis are paid semi-annually, Assume semi-annual compounding. Round your answer to 4 decimal places. For example if your answer is 3.205%, then please write down 0.0321. a) You would like to heat 10 litres of tap water initially at room temperature using an old 2 kW heater that has an efficieny of 70%. Estimate the temperature of the water after 20 minutes stating any assumptions made. b) Determine the amount of heat needed to completely transform 1 g of water at 15C to steam at 115C. (Obtain any relevant data that you need from the internet. Cite the source of that data in your answer) using react jscreate a staff page for a barber app where the staff are able to see the appointments they have on todays shiftthe code should be written in a way as if it will be intaking data from the backend for the appointments (name, phone number, email, date, time)it should also have a signout button (theres no need to define button class) Anna and Brad are two friends who run a lemonade stand and split all profits and costs 50-50. After years of running a successful business, Brad decides that he can make more money on his own and starts a competing stand next door to Anna's. Anna sues Brad for unfair competition and breach of contract. The first document that Anna would file in court is called a(n) _____________________, and Brad's response is called a(n) ______________________:Group of answer choicesComplaint; AnswerCause of Action; PleadingArgument; Affirmative DefenseLawsuit; Appeal Ms. Susan Aparejo is a contemporary poet and wrote a poem on Artificial Intelligence in a lucid way, even common people can understand the meaning of this jargon. Zuwaina is a student of English wants to analyze the poem in various perspectives. As python is providing various string functions and interfaces to regular expressions, you should solve the following questions of Zuwaina based on the given poem.The poem is:"""Though artificial but genuine,Though not a human but has brain,Though no emotions but teach how to emote,Though not eating but teach how to cook,Though not writing but teach how to write,Though not studying yet it gives tips in studying,Though no diploma but a master in all degrees,The master of all, but sometimes meet trouble,Like humans, it feels tiresome,Just unplugged and open once more, your artificial gadget,Never complain even being called as 'Computer'"""a) How many words are there in the poem?b) How many words start with the letter t or T in the poem?c) How many words are with the length less than 4 in the poem?d) Which is the longest word in the poem?Write a menu driven program in python to answer zuwainas questions.Menu items are:1.How many words?2. How many words start wit 't' or 'T'?3. How many words whose length is < 4?4. Which is the longest word?0. ExitEnter your choice: 1There are 82 words in the poemEnter your choice: 2There are 17 words start with 't' or 'T'Enter your choice: 3There are 33 words with length less than 4Enter your choice: 4The longest word in the poem is 'artificial' and its length is 10 Problem 1. (16%) Determine the components of the support reaction at the fixed support A of the beam shown. You must include a FBD. 3 kN 0.5 kN/m 5 kN-m A 6 m -3 m- Solve the initial value problem COS - dy dx + y sin x = 2x cos x, y (0) = 5. Question 8 3 Points Krista deposits P20,000 in a bank account at 3.8% compounded quarterly for 5 years. If the inflation rate of 5.8% per year continues for this period, calculate the purchasing power of the original principal. Round your answer to 2 decimal places. Add your answer Which of these is NOT a required device/information for the horizontal angle measurement? a) Reference line/point b) Theodolite c) Reflector d) All of the given answer e) Direction of turning f) None Why does the minimum snow load for low-sloped roofs (see Section7.3.4) not consider the exposure or thermal characteristics of thebuilding? Which statement below best encapsulates the arguments from paragraphs 3 and 4? A. Antibacterial soaps are ineffective because people dont use them correctly and that soaps never work as they are intended to. B. Some bacteria are beneficial to humans and humans need to be exposed to bacteria to develop an immune system. C. People do not utilize antibacterial soap effectively and exposure to harmful bacteria may be beneficial. D. Human beings lack patience and modern children are weak. A 82.6lb child has a Streptococcus infection. Amoxicillin is prescribed at a dosage of 45mg per kg of body weight per day given b.i.d. What is the meaning of the Latin abbreviation b.i.d? once daily twice daily every other day as needed How many hours should pass between each administration? number of hours: How many milligrams of amoxicillin should be given at each administration? How many milligrams of amoxicillin should be given at each administration? mass of amoxicillin: Amoxicillin should be stored between 0C and 20C. Should the amoxicillin be stored in the freczer or the refrigerator? refrigerator freezer outdoors medicine cabinet Amoxicillin is available as a tablet or powder. Are the particles in the tablet or powder close together or far apart? The particles in the tablet are close together, whereas the particles in the powder are far apart. The particles in the tablet and the particles in the powder are far apart. The particles in the tablet are far apart, whereas the particles in the powder are close together. The particles in the tablet and the particles in the powder are close together.