Need help with this question.

Answer:

the answer is 12

Step-by-step explanation:

you toss the dice and coin let’s say it lands on 2 and heads there is one possibility. there is only 6 sides to the dice and 2 sides to a coin. 6 x 2 = 12.

Answer: coin = 26 sided die = 62 × 6 = 12

Step-by-step explanation: When you flip a coin there are two possible outcomes (heads or tails) and when you roll a die there are six outcomes(1 to 6). Putting these together means you have a total of 2×6=12 outcomes. The answer would be 12. Hope that helps!!

Step-by-step explanation:

4.since two sides are congruent and two angles are equal so they are similar and we can say:

[tex] \frac{14}{42} = \frac{7}{x} \\ x = 21[/tex]

DF is 21

5.since two sides are congruent and two angles are equal so they are similar and we can say:

[tex] \frac{6}{9} = \frac{10}{x} \\ x = 15[/tex]

EF is 15

6.

[tex]since \: \: \frac{4}{20} = \frac{6}{30} \: \: so \: we \: can \: say \: they \: are \: similar \: so \: we \: have \\ \\ \frac{4}{20} = \frac{5}{x} \\ \\ x = 25[/tex]

DF is 25

Answer:

See below ~

Step-by-step explanation:

Writing the equation

Solutions

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

7s-3s-2t+7t-4st

4s+5-4st

Answer: b) slope: -1, y-intercept 12

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation here is in slope-intercept form (y=mx+b)

In slope-intercept form m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

m=-1 and b=12 so the answer is b

slope: -1, y-intercept: 12

Hope it helps.

Do comment if you have any query.

                                        Add the values together

                                                     8 + 9 + 4

                                                          21

Answer:

12% :)

Step-by-step explanation:

0.12 x 100 = 12%

Have an amazing day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

The time taken by Jill and Cheryl to double their money is 12 years and 18 years respectively.

Algebra is the study of mathematical symbols and the rule involves manipulating these mathematical symbols.

Jill invested $500 in an account with a compound interest rate of 6%.

Cheryl invests $600 in an account with a compound interest rate of 4%.

The number of years each doubles their money. Using the relation of 72.

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{r}[/tex]

where r is the interest rate and t be the time

The time for the Jill will be

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{6}\\\\t = 12\\[/tex]

The time for the Cheryl will be

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{4}\\\\t = 18\\[/tex]

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The dots make a trapozoid

the slope goes by several names

• average rate of change

• rate of change

• deltaY over deltaX

• Δy over Δx

• rise over run

• gradient

• constant of proportionality

however, is the same cat wearing different costumes.

[tex]16x-20y=0\implies -20y=-16x\implies y=\cfrac{-16x}{-20}\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ 25y=20x\implies y=\cfrac{20x}{25}\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ y=0.8x\implies y=\cfrac{8}{10}x\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x[/tex]

Answer:

Other than your answer...

Step-by-step explanation:

5^6 x 5^5

48,828,125

5^2 x 5^9

hope this helps :)

Answer:

20 i'ma say 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation

Answer:

8 bracelets

Step-by-step explanation:

Each time when we we cut the ribbon for making a ribbon, the length will be reduced. So, repeated subtraction is division.

To find the number of bracelets, divide the total length of the ribbon by the length required for making a bracelet.

Fraction division:

Use KCF method

Step1: Keep the first fraction

Step2: Change division to multiplication

Step3: Flip the second fraction

Number of bracelets = total length ÷ length required for making a bracelet.

                                  [tex]= 5\dfrac{1}{3} \div \dfrac{2}{3}\\\\= \dfrac{16}{3} \div \dfrac{2}{3}\\\\= \dfrac{16}{3}*\dfrac{3}{2}\\\\= 8[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

a.

[tex]f(2) = 0[/tex]

b.

[tex]f(x) = 4 \\ f(5) = 4 \\ x = 5[/tex]

c.

[—3,2] union [3.4, 4]

Answer:

x - 40

Step-by-step explanation:

3[tex]x[/tex] = 120

[tex]\frac{3x}{3\\}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{120}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x[/tex] = 40

By the Vertical Angle theorem,

    ⇒ [tex]3x = 120[/tex] ⇒ [tex]x = 40[/tex]

Thus x = 40

Hope that helps!

[tex](\stackrel{x_1}{-3}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{5})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{4}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{2}) ~\hfill \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise} {\stackrel{y_2}{2}-\stackrel{y1}{5}}}{\underset{run} {\underset{x_2}{4}-\underset{x_1}{(-3)}}}\implies \cfrac{-3}{4+3}\implies -\cfrac{3}{7}[/tex]

-17*C

Step-by-step explanation:

It's decreases so it's going to be colder

Start-8

1) - 9

2) - 10

3) - 11

4) - 12

5) - 13

6) - 14

7) - 15

8) - 16

9) - 17

Or

-8-9= - 17

Hope this helps!

Answer:

( x + 4 ) ( x + 1 )

Step-by-step explanation:

x² + 5x + 4

= x² + 1x + 4x + 4

= x ( x + 1 ) + 4 ( x + 1 )

= ( x + 4 ) ( x + 1 )

Hence, factorised.

Answer:

I think it's 10 or 10.5 not sure

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

50 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the angles in the picture need to add up to 180 degrees.

<TVU = 30 degrees, so the 3 remaining angles need to add up to 150 degrees.

<QVR is = to <RVS  and <RVS is = to <SVT, so all 3 angles are = to each other

<QVR = <RVS = <SVT

We have 150 degrees remaining & all 3 angles have to be the same, so each angle is 50 degrees

Answer:

Explanation:

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32} = \dfrac{20}{32} \ \div \ 1 = \dfrac{20\div 4}{32 \div 4} = \dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Follow the sequence. and divide the multiply the following fraction.

=======

Answer:

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32}=\dfrac{20}{32} \div 1=\dfrac{20 \div 4}{32 \div 4}=\dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

When reducing fractions to their simplest equivalent, we need to divide the numerator and denominator by their highest common factor.

Factors of 20:   1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20

Factors of 32,    1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

Therefore, the highest common factor is 4.

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32}=\dfrac{20}{32} \div 1=\dfrac{20 \div 4}{32 \div 4}=\dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

it should be cost, because when there is more quantity of something there will be less price.

Answer:

4 + 16n

Step-by-step explanation:

4 (1 + 4n)

Use the distributive property & expand the expression .

= (4*1) + (4*4n)

= 4 + 16n

________

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

[tex]\Longrightarrow: \boxed{\sf{4+16n}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distributive property.

Distributive property:

⇒ A(B+C)=AB+AC

Multiply expand.

4*1=4

4*4n=16n

Rewrite the expression down.

= 4+16n

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any questions.

Using it's concept, it is found that there is a 0.79 = 79% probability that he or she is content with the vacation allowance.

A probability is given by the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

In this problem, 500 - 105 = 395 out of 500 employees are content with the vacation allowance, hence:

p = 395/500 = 0.79.

There is a 0.79 = 79% probability that he or she is content with the vacation allowance.

More can be learned about probabilities at https://brainly.com/question/14398287

Answer:

Option D: $32.50

Step-by-step explanation:

3 × 8.50 = 25.50

2 × 5 = 10

[25.50 + 10] - 3

[35.50] - 3

= $32.50

Answer:

16

Explanation:

Let "x" be the number

===========

→ integers less than 17 are 16, 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, ...

⇒ integers are whole numbers, not negative, does not include decimals or fractions.

So,

16 is the largest integer which is less than 17

Answer:

D. 0

Step-by-step explanation:

|9 - 5| = |4|, which equals 4. |5 - 9| = |-4|, which also equals 4.

4 - 4 = 0.

If your answer is in absolute value and it is negative, the outcome will always be positive. Hope this helps.

Answer for 1st question:

The answer is A. 4/20

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on a vowel would be 2/5.

The probability of landing on an even number would be 2/4.

Now we just need to solve the probability of landing on a vowel and an even number.

2/5 x 2/4 = 4/20.

Thereore, the probability of landing on a vowel and an even number is 4/20.

Answer for 2nd question:

The answer is B. 1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on a C would be 1/5.

The probability of landing on a 4 would be 1/4.

Again, we just need to solve the probability of landing on a C and a 4.

1/5 x 1/4 = 1/20.

Therefore, the probability of landing a C and a 4 is 1/20.